100-105 Exam
An Expert interview about 100 105 icnd1 pdf
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Q71. - (Topic 5)
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted.
C. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the
configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Encryption further adds a level of security to the system as anyone having access to the database of passwords cannot reverse the process of encryption to know the actual passwords which isn’t the case if the passwords are stored simply.
Q72. - (Topic 1)
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?
A. application
B. transport
C. network
D. physical
E. data link
Answer: E
Explanation:
CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco-manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer, transparent protocols. CDP allows devices to share basic configuration information without even configuring any protocol specific information and is enabled by default on all interfaces. CDP is a Datalink Protocol occurring at Layer 2 of the OSI model. CDP is not routable and can only go over to directly connected devices. CDP is enabled, by default, on all Cisco devices. CDP updates are generated as multicasts every 60 seconds with a hold-down period of 180 seconds for a missing neighbor. The no cdp run command globally disables CDP, while the no cdp enable command disables CDP on an interface. Use show cdp neighbors to list out your directly connected Cisco neighboring devices. Adding the detail parameter will display the layer-3 addressing configured on the neighbor.
Reference: http://computernetworkingnotes.com/cisco-devices-administration-and-configuration/cisco-discoveryprotocol.html
Q73. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The “network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 equals to network 192.168.12.64/26. This network has:
+
Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000)
+
Network address: 192.168.12.64
+
Broadcast address: 192.168.12.127
Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF.
Q74. - (Topic 3)
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links.
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R6 in the Branch3 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; the username is not configured on R3 and R6.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. The R3 router ID is configured on R6.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Using the show running-config command we see that R6 has been incorrectly configured with the same router ID as R3 under the router OSPF process.
Q75. - (Topic 1)
Which layer of the OSI model controls the reliability of communications between network devices using flow control, sequencing and acknowledgments?
A. Physical
B. Data-link
C. Transport
D. Network
Answer: C
Q76. - (Topic 3)
The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements.
Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three).
A. One IP subnet with a mask of 255.255.254.0
B. Two IP subnets with a mask of 255.255.255.0
C. Seven 48-port hubs
D. Seven 48-port switches
E. One router interface
F. Seven router interfaces
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
To support 300 workstations in a single broadcast domain, we need to use a subnet mask
which supports 512 hosts = 29-> /23 or 255.255.254.0 in decimal form -> A is correct.
If we use 48-port switches we need 300/48 = 6.25 -> seven 48-port switches are enough
because we also need trunking between them -> D is correct.
We only need one router interface and it is connected with one of seven switches -> E is
correct.
Q77. - (Topic 3)
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In OSPF, the hello and dead intervals must match and here we can see the hello interval is set to 5 on R1 and 10 on R2. The dead interval is also set to 20 on R1 but it is 40 on R2.
Q78. - (Topic 4)
The network administrator is using a Windows PC application that is called putty.exe for remote communication to a switch for network troubleshooting. Which two protocols could be used during this communication? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. Telnet
D. RMON
E. SSH
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
PuTTY is a free implementation of Telnet and SSH for Windows and Unix platforms, and is used to connect to Cisco and other networking devices using SSH or Telnet.
Topic 5, Infrastructure Maintenance
Q79. - (Topic 7)
Which statement about unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown, the frame is flooded to every port that is configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded
Answer: B
Q80. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)
A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.
B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.
C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.
D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.
E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.
F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
The router will forward the frames out the interface toward the destination – B is correct. Since the router will has the end station already in it’s MAC table as see by the “show arp” command, it will replace the destination MAC address to that of PC2 – D is correct. The router will then replace the source IP address to 172.16.40.1 – E is correct.