NEW QUESTION 1
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3. Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database? (Choose two.)

• A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
• B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
• C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
• D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
• E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2

Answer: AC

Explanation: To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
* (A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command.

NEW QUESTION 2
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance:

Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

• A. The MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter is automatically set to 500 MB.
• B. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
• C. The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero for the database instance.
• D. The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to 90 MB and 270 MB respectively.
• E. The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to nonzero values.

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 3
The HR.DEPARTMENTS table is the parent of the HR.EMPLOYEES table. The EMPLOYEES.DEPARTMENT_ID column has a foreign key constraint with the ON DELETE CASCADE option that refers to the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column. An index exists on the DEPARTMENTS.DEPARTMENT_ID column. A transaction deletes a primary key in the DEPARTMENTS table, which has child rows in the EMPLOYEES table. Which statement is true?

• A. The transaction acquires a table lock only on the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction is complete.
• B. The transaction acquires a table lock on the DEPARTMENTS tabl
• C. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
• D. The transaction acquires a table lock on the EMPLOYEES tabl
• E. This lock enables other sessions to query but not update the EMPLOYEES table until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
• F. Only the rows that are deleted in the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables are locked until the transactions on the DEPARTMENTS table is complete.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Which two categories of segments are analyzed by the Automatic Segment Advisor? (Choose two.)

• A. segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold
• B. segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
• C. segments that are sparsely populated and have more than 10% of free space below the high water mark.
• D. segments that have unusable indexes
• E. segments for tables created using ADVANCED ROW COMPRESSION

Answer: AB

Explanation: References:
http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_segment_advisor_10g.htm

NEW QUESTION 5
Identify three benefits of Unified Auditing.

• A. Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.
• B. It improves overall auditing performance.
• C. It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
• D. The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
• E. It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.

Answer: ABE

Explanation: A: Starting with 12c, Oracle has unified all of the auditing types into one single unit called Unified auditing. You don’t have to turn on or off all of the different auidting types individually and as a matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have been replaced with one single audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files table thus improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B: Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related problems seen on busy environments.
E: Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label Security, Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
* Benefits of the Unified Audit Trail
The benefits of a unified audit trail are many:
/ (B) Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is Queued Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are batched in SGA queue and is persisted in a periodic way. Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant performance improvement.
/ The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization parameters that were used in previous releases
/ (A) The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components of your Oracle Database installation are placed in one location and in one format, rather than your having to look in different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view enables auditors to co-relate audit information from different components. For example, if an error occurred during an INSERT statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the SQL that was executed. Oracle Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error happened because of a command rule violation or realm violation. Note that there will be two audit records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this unification in place, SYS audit records appear with AUDIT_TYPE set to Standard Audit.
/ The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/ You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at the beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative users. Furthermore, you can build conditions and exclusions into your policies.
* Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle database using policies and conditions. The new policy based syntax simplifies management of auditing within the database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
* The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified management and increasing the security of audit data generated by the database.

NEW QUESTION 6
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)

• A. Advising on block checksum failures
• B. Advising on inaccessible control files
• C. Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
• D. Advising on empty password files
• E. Advising on invalid block header field values

Answer: ABE

Explanation: * Data Recovery Advisor can diagnose failures such as the following:
/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not exist, do not have the correct access permissions, have been taken offline, and so on
/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values
/ Inconsistencies such as a datafile that is older than other database files
/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating system resource limits (for example, the number of open files)
* The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk, determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user's request. This reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover (MTTR).

NEW QUESTION 7
You want to create a database and you have the following:
- Oracle Grid Infrastructure is installed and configured.
- Oracle Database Vault is installed in ORACLE_HOME to be used for this database.
- Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control is available and an agent is deployed on the database server. Examine the requirements:
1. configuring the database instance to support shared server mode
2. using Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storing database files.
3. configuring a naming method to help a remote user connect to a database instance
4. configuring the Fast Recovery Area
5. configuring Database Vault
6. configuring Enterprise Manager (EM) Database Express
7. registering with EM Cloud Control
8. configuring remote log archive destinations
9. enabling daily incremental backups
10. configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces
Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?

• A. 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 and 10
• B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
• C. 1, 2, 3, 8, 9 and 10
• D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
• E. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
You upgrade your Oracle database in a multiprocessor environment. As a recommended you execute the following script: SQL > @utlrp.sql
Which two actions does the script perform? (Choose two.)

• A. Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
• B. Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
• C. Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
• D. Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
• E. Parallel recompilation of Java code
• F. Sequential recompilation of Java code

Answer: CE

Explanation: utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql
The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the database. They are typically run after major database changes such as upgrades or patches. They are located in the
$ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the UTL_RECOMP package. The utlrp.sql script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line parameter of "0". The utlprp.sql accepts a single integer parameter that indicates the level of parallelism as follows.
0 - The level of parallelism is derived based on the CPU_COUNT parameter. 1 - The recompilation is run serially, one object at a time.
N - The recompilation is run in parallel with "N" number of threads.
Both scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly. References:

NEW QUESTION 9
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of configuring temporary undo? (Choose two.)

• A. Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.
• B. Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
• C. Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.
• D. Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary table

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 10
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle? (Choose three.)

• A. Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
• B. Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
• C. Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
• D. Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
• E. Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
• F. Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index

Answer: ABF

Explanation: Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple partitions. A: Merge Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for merging two partitions.
B: Drop Multiple Partitions:
The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions with a single statement.
Example:
view plaincopy to clipboardprint?
SQL> ALTER TABLE Tab_tst1 DROP PARTITIONS
Tab_tst1_PART5, Tab_tst1_PART6, Tab_tst1_PART7; Table altered
SQL>
Restrictions :
- You can’t drop all partitions of the table.
- If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition of a partitioned.

NEW QUESTION 11
Your production database PROD uses file system storage. You want to migrate storage including the Fast Recovery Area for the PROD database to Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM) by using RMAN. You back up the entire database.
What should the next step be in this migration process?

• A. enabling row movement for the database
• B. disabling Oracle Flashback Database if enabled
• C. opening the database in exclusive mode
• D. placing all tablespaces in read-only mode

Answer: B

Explanation: References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asm_rman.htm#OSTMG89995

NEW QUESTION 12
In your database, the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to TYPICAL and an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot is taken every 30 minutes.
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose two.)

• A. It measures database performance by analyzing the wait time and CPU time of all non-idle user sessions.
• B. It always compares the latest snapshot with the baseline snapshot for analysis.
• C. It runs after each AWR snapshot is created and it requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
• D. It requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis.
• E. It calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors to be use

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 13
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken. RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup.
In which three scenarios do you need media recovery? (Choose three.)

• A. loss of all the copies of the control file
• B. loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
• C. loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
• D. loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
• E. logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
• F. abnormal termination of the database instance

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 14
Your database instance is started by using a server parameter file (SPFILE). You execute the following command to change the value of the LOG_BUFFER initialization parameter:
ALTER SYSTEM SET LOG_BUFFER=32 M;
What is the outcome of this command?

• A. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in the SGA.
• B. It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
• C. The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect at the next instance startup.
• D. It returns an error because SCOPE should be set to MEMOR

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15
You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure standalone server and issue the following command: crsctl start has
Which two existing components get automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose two.)

• A. Oracle CSSD services
• B. the database whose instance is running
• C. Oracle Notification services
• D. Oracle Healthcheck services
• E. Oracle Net Listener

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 16
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction? (Choose two.)

• A. Flashback Database must be enabled.
• B. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
• C. EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing back transaction.
• D. Supplemental logging must be enabled.
• E. Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
• F. Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.

Answer: BD

Explanation: References: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/tip/How-to-perform-Oracle-Flashback-Transaction-Queries https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e41502/adfns_flashback.htm#ADFNS610

NEW QUESTION 17
Examine the command: SQL> CONNECT hr/hr@orcl
Which two configurations allow this command to execute successfully? (Choose two.)

• A. In the tnsnames.ora file, the SERVICE_NAME value of CONNECT_DATA should be explicitly suffixed with the domain name.
• B. The SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter should contain the name orcl in the database host.
• C. The orcl TNS alias should be defined such that it is resolvable by a client running on the database host.
• D. The orcl TNS alias should be defined in the tnsnames.ora file on both the client and the database host.
• E. The TNS_ADMIN environment variable should be set to orcl on the clien

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 18
Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled for your database instance. You notice that there are SQL statements performing poorly because of repeated parsing activity.
Which action generates recommendations to overcome the performance issues?

• A. running the Memory Advisor for the buffer cache
• B. running the Memory Advisor for the library cache
• C. running the Memory Advisor for the SGA
• D. running the Memory Advisor for the PGA

Answer: B