Exam Code: aws sysops dumps (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: AWS Certified SysOps Administrator Associate
Certification Provider: Amazon
Free Today! Guaranteed Training- Pass aws certified sysops administrator associate Exam.
Q51. - (Topic 2)
A root AWS account owner is trying to understand various options to set the permission to AWS S3. Which of the below mentioned options is not the right option to grant permission for S3?
A. User Access Policy
B. S3 Object Access Policy
C. S3 Bucket Access Policy
D. S3 ACL
Answer: B
Explanation:
Amazon S3 provides a set of operations to work with the Amazon S3 resources. Managing S3 resource access refers to granting others permissions to work with S3. There are three ways the root account owner can define access with S3: S3 ACL: The user can use ACLs to grant basic read/write permissions to other AWS accounts. S3 Bucket Policy: The policy is used to grant other AWS accounts or IAM users permissions for the bucket and the objects in it. User Access Policy: Define an IAM user and assign him the IAM policy which grants him access to S3.
Q52. - (Topic 3)
A user is trying to create a PIOPS EBS volume with 8 GB size and 200 IOPS. Will AWS create the volume?
A. Yes, since the ratio between EBS and IOPS is less than 30
B. No, since the PIOPS and EBS size ratio is less than 30
C. No, the EBS size is less than 10 GB
D. Yes, since PIOPS is higher than 100
Answer: C
Explanation:
A provisioned IOPS EBS volume can range in size from 10 GB to 1 TB and the user can provision up to 4000 IOPS per volume. The ratio of IOPS provisioned to the volume size requested should be a maximum of 30; for example, a volume with 3000 IOPS must be at least 100 GB.
Q53. - (Topic 3)
A user has setup a VPC with CIDR 20.0.0.0/16. The VPC has a private subnet (20.0.1.0/24. and a public
subnet (20.0.0.0/24.. The user’s data centre has CIDR of 20.0.54.0/24 and 20.1.0.0/24. If the private subnet wants to communicate with the data centre, what will happen?
A. It will allow traffic communication on both the CIDRs of the data centre
B. It will not allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but allows traffic communication on
20.0.54.0/24
C. It will not allow traffic communication on any of the data centre CIDRs
D. It will allow traffic with data centre on CIDR 20.1.0.0/24 but does not allow on 20.0.54.0/24
Answer: D
Explanation:
VPC allows the user to set up a connection between his VPC and corporate or home network data centre. If the user has an IP address prefix in the VPC that overlaps with one of the networks' prefixes, any traffic to the network's prefix is dropped. In this case CIDR 20.0.54.0/24 falls in the VPC’s CIDR range of 20.0.0.0/16. Thus, it will not allow traffic on that IP. In the case of 20.1.0.0/24, it does not fall in the VPC’s CIDR range. Thus, traffic will be allowed on it.
Q54. - (Topic 2)
An organization is generating digital policy files which are required by the admins for verification. Once the files are verified they may not be required in the future unless there is some compliance issue. If the organization wants to save them in a cost effective way, which is the best possible solution?
A. AWS RRS
B. AWS S3
C. AWS RDS
D. AWS Glacier
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon S3 stores objects according to their storage class. There are three major storage classes: Standard, Reduced Redundancy and Glacier. Standard is for AWS S3 and provides very high durability. However, the costs are a little higher. Reduced redundancy is for less critical files. Glacier is for archival and the files which are accessed infrequently. It is an extremely low-cost storage service that provides secure and durable storage for data archiving and backup.
Q55. - (Topic 2)
A user is launching an EC2 instance in the US East region. Which of the below mentioned options is
recommended by AWS with respect to the selection of the availability zone?
A. Always select the US-East-1-a zone for HA
B. Do not select the AZ; instead let AWS select the AZ
C. The user can never select the availability zone while launching an instance
D. Always select the AZ while launching an instance
Answer: B
Explanation:
When launching an instance with EC2, AWS recommends not to select the availability zone (AZ.. AWS
specifies that the default Availability Zone should be accepted. This is because it enables AWS to select the best Availability Zone based on the system health and available capacity. If the user launches additional instances, only then an Availability Zone should be specified. This is to specify the same or different AZ from the running instances.
Q56. - (Topic 3)
A sys admin has enabled logging on ELB. Which of the below mentioned fields will not be a part of the log file name?
A. Load Balancer IP
B. EC2 instance IP
C. S3 bucket name
D. Random string
Answer: B
Explanation:
Elastic Load Balancing access logs capture detailed information for all the requests made to the load balancer. Elastic Load Balancing publishes a log file from each load balancer node at the interval that the user has specified. The load balancer can deliver multiple logs for the same period. Elastic Load Balancing creates log file names in the following format: “{Bucket}/{Prefix}/AWSLogs/{AWS AccountID}/elasticloadbalancing/{Region}/{Year}/{Month}/{Day}/{AWS Account ID}_elasticloadbalancing_{Region}_{Load Balancer Name}_{End Time}_{Load Balancer IP}_{Random String}.log“
Q57. - (Topic 3)
A user has created an application which will be hosted on EC2. The application makes calls to DynamoDB to fetch certain data. The application is using the DynamoDB SDK to connect with from the EC2 instance. Which of the below mentioned statements is true with respect to the best practice for security in this scenario?
A. The user should attach an IAM role with DynamoDB access to the EC2 instance
B. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB access and use its credentials within the application to connect with DynamoDB
C. The user should create an IAM role, which has EC2 access so that it will allow deploying the application
D. The user should create an IAM user with DynamoDB and EC2 access. Attach the user with the application so that it does not use the root account credentials
Answer: A
Explanation:
With AWS IAM a user is creating an application which runs on an EC2 instance and makes requests to AWS, such as DynamoDB or S3 calls. Here it is recommended that the user should not create an IAM user and pass the user's credentials to the application or embed those credentials inside the application. Instead, the user should use roles for EC2 and give that role access to DynamoDB /S3. When the roles are attached to EC2, it will give temporary security credentials to the application hosted on that EC2, to connect with DynamoDB / S3.
Q58. - (Topic 3)
A user has created a VPC with public and private subnets using the VPC wizard. The user has not launched any instance manually and is trying to delete the VPC. What will happen in this scenario?
A. It will not allow to delete the VPC as it has subnets with route tables
B. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running route instance
C. It will terminate the VPC along with all the instances launched by the wizard
D. It will not allow to delete the VPC since it has a running NAT instance
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC. is a virtual network dedicated to the user’s AWS account. A user can create a subnet with VPC and launch instances inside that subnet. If the user has created a public private subnet, the instances in the public subnet can receive inbound traffic directly from the Internet, whereas the instances in the private subnet cannot. If these subnets are created with Wizard, AWS will create a NAT instance with an elastic IP. If the user is trying to delete the VPC it will not allow as the NAT instance is still running.
Q59. - (Topic 3)
A user has launched a Windows based EC2 instance. However, the instance has some issues and the user wants to check the log. When the user checks the Instance console output from the AWS console, what will it display?
A. All the event logs since instance boot
B. The last 10 system event log error
C. The Windows instance does not support the console output
D. The last three system events’ log errors
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AWS EC2 console provides a useful tool called Console output for problem diagnosis. It is useful to find out any kernel issues, termination reasons or service configuration issues. For a Windows instance it lists the last three system event log errors. For Linux it displays the exact console output.
Q60. - (Topic 2)
A user is trying to understand AWS SNS. To which of the below mentioned end points is SNS unable to send a notification?
A. Email JSON
B. HTTP
C. AWS SQS
D. AWS SES
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS. is a fast, flexible, and fully managed push messaging service. Amazon SNS can deliver notifications by SMS text message or email to the Amazon Simple Queue Service (SQS. queues or to any HTTP endpoint. The user can select one the following transports as part of the subscription requests: “HTTP”, “HTTPS”,”Email”, “Email-JSON”, “SQS”, “and SMS”.