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NEW QUESTION 1
An advanced threat emulation engineer is conducting testing against a client’s network. The engineer conducts the testing in as realistic a manner as possible. Consequently, the engineer has been gradually ramping up the volume of attacks over a long period of time. Which of the following combinations of techniques would the engineer MOST likely use in this testing? (Choose three.)
Answer: AEF
NEW QUESTION 2
An administrator has enabled salting for users' passwords on a UNIX box. A penetration tester must attempt to retrieve password hashes. Which of the following files must the penetration tester use to eventually obtain passwords on the system? (Select TWO).
Answer: AB
Explanation:
In cryptography, a salt is random data that is used as an additional input to a one-way function that hashes a password or passphrase. In this question, enabling salting for users' passwords means to store the passwords in an encrypted format.
Traditional Unix systems keep user account information, including one-way encrypted passwords, in a text file called ``/etc/passwd''. As this file is used by many tools (such as ``ls'') to display file ownerships, etc. by matching user id #'s with the user's names, the file needs to be world-readable. Consequentially, this can be somewhat of a security risk.
Another method of storing account information is with the shadow password format. As with the traditional method, this method stores account information in the /etc/passwd file in a compatible
format. However, the password is stored as a single "x" character (ie. not actually stored in this file). A second file, called ``/etc/shadow'', contains encrypted password as well as other information such as account or password expiration values, etc.
Incorrect Answers:
C: The /etc/security file contains group information. It does not contain usernames or passwords. D: There is no /etc/password file. Usernames are stored in the /etc/passwd file.
E: There is no /sbin/logon file. Usernames are stored in the /etc/passwd file.
F: /bin/bash is a UNIX shell used to run a script. It is not where usernames or passwords are stored. References:
http://www.tldp.org/LDP/lame/LAME/linux-admin-made-easy/shadow-file-formats.HYPERLINK "http://www.tldp.org/LDP/lame/LAME/linux-admin-made-easy/shadow-file-formats.html"html
NEW QUESTION 3
An organization is engaged in international business operations and is required to comply with various legal frameworks. In addition to changes in legal frameworks, which of the following is a primary purpose of a compliance management program?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 4
The latest independent research shows that cyber attacks involving SCADA systems grew an average of 15% per year in each of the last four years, but that this year’s growth has slowed to around 7%. Over the same time period, the number of attacks against applications has decreased or stayed flat each year. At the start of the measure period, the incidence of PC boot loader or BIOS based attacks was negligible. Starting two years ago, the growth in the number of PC boot loader attacks has grown exponentially. Analysis of these trends would seem to suggest which of the following strategies should be employed?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Spending on the security controls should stay steady because the attacks are still ongoing albeit reduced in occurrence Due to the incidence of BIOS-based attacks growing exponentially as the application attacks being decreased or staying flat spending should increase in this field. Incorrect Answers:
A: The SCADA security control spending and not the SCADA protection spending should stay steady. There is no need to in spending on application control.
C: There is no n increase spending on all security controls.
D: This is partly correct, but the spending on application control does not have to increase and the BIOS protections should increase since these attacks are now more prevalent.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 343
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCADA
NEW QUESTION 5
An insurance company has two million customers and is researching the top transactions on its customer portal. It identifies that the top transaction is currently password reset. Due to users not remembering their secret questions, a large number of calls are consequently routed to the contact center for manual password resets. The business wants to develop a mobile application to improve customer engagement in the future, continue with a single factor of authentication, minimize management overhead of the solution, remove passwords, and eliminate to the contact center. Which of the following techniques would BEST meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 6
A security policy states that all applications on the network must have a password length of eight characters. There are three legacy applications on the network that cannot meet this policy. One system will be upgraded in six months, and two are not expected to be upgraded or removed from the network. Which of the following processes should be followed?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Exception Request must include: A description of the non-compliance.
The anticipated length of non-compliance (2-year maximum). The proposed assessment of risk associated with non-compliance.
The proposed plan for managing the risk associated with non-compliance.
The proposed metrics for evaluating the success of risk management (if risk is significant). The proposed review date to evaluate progress toward compliance.
An endorsement of the request by the appropriate Information Trustee (VP or Dean). Incorrect Answers:
A: A risk matrix can be used to determine an overall risk ranking before determining how the risk will be dealt with.
B: Inheriting the risk for six months means that it has been decided the benefits of moving forward outweighs the risk.
C: Avoiding the risk is not recommended as the applications are still being used. References:
http://www.rit.edu/security/sHYPERLINK "http://www.rit.edu/security/sites/rit.edu.security/files/exception process.pdf"ites/rit.edu.security/files/exceptionHYPERLINK "http://www.rit.edu/security/sites/rit.edu.security/files/exception process.pdf"%20process.pdf
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 218
NEW QUESTION 7
A security administrator has noticed that an increased number of employees’ workstations are becoming infected with malware. The company deploys an enterprise antivirus system as well as a web content filter, which blocks access to malicious web sites where malware files can be downloaded. Additionally, the company implements technical measures to disable external storage. Which of the following is a technical control that the security administrator should implement next to reduce malware infection?
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question states that the company implements technical measures to disable external storage. This is storage such as USB flash drives and will help to ensure that the users to do not bring unauthorized data that could potentially contain malware into the network.
We should extend this by blocking cloud-based storage software on the company network. This would block access to cloud-based storage services such as Dropbox or OneDrive.
Incorrect Answers:
A: An Acceptable Use Policy is always a good ide
A. However, it just tells the users how they ‘should’
use the company systems. It is not a technical control to prevent malware.
B: A network access control system is used to control access to the network. It does not prevent malware on client computers.
C: Mandatory security awareness training for all employees and contractors is always a good idea. However, it just educates the users about potential security risks. It is not a technical control to prevent malware.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which of the following provides the BEST risk calculation methodology?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Of the options given, the BEST risk calculation methodology would be Potential Loss x Event Probability x Control Failure Probability. This exam is about computer and data security so ‘loss’ caused by risk is not necessarily a monetary value.
For example:
Potential Loss could refer to the data lost in the event of a data storage failure. Event probability could be the risk a disk drive or drives failing.
Control Failure Probability could be the risk of the storage RAID not being able to handle the number of failed hard drives without losing data.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is a monetary value used to calculate how much is expected to be lost in one year. For example, if the cost of a failure (Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)) is $1000 and the failure is expected to happen 5 times in a year (Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)), then the Annual Loss Expectancy is $5000. ALE is not the best calculation for I.T. risk calculation.
C: Impact x Threat x Vulnerability looks like a good calculation at first glance. However, for a risk calculation there needs to be a definition of the likelihood (probability) of the risk.
D: Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is a monetary value used to calculate how much is expected to be lost in one year. ALE is not the best calculation for I.T. risk calculation.
References:
https://iaonline.theiia.org/understanding-the-risk-management-process
NEW QUESTION 9
A technician receives the following security alert from the firewall’s automated system:
After reviewing the alert, which of the following is the BEST analysis?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 10
Two competing companies experienced similar attacks on their networks from various threat actors. To improve response times, the companies wish to share some threat intelligence about the sources and methods of attack. Which of the following business documents would be BEST to document this engagement?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 11
Users have been reporting unusual automated phone calls, including names and phone numbers, that appear to come from devices internal to the company. Which of the following should the systems administrator do to BEST address this problem?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 12
During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required
remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more appropriate solution?
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) virtual private network (VPN) would provide the network administrator who requires remote access a secure and reliable method of accessing the system over the Internet. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) standards for federation will provide cross-web service authentication and authorization.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Blocking the application would prevent the network administrator who requires remote access from accessing the system. While this will address the presence of the unauthorized remote access application, it will not address the network administrator’s need for remote access.
B: Installing the unauthorized remote access application on the rest of the servers would not be an “appropriate” solution. An appropriate solution would provide a secure form of remote access to the network administrator who requires remote access.
D: An access control list (ACL) is used for packer filtering and for selecting types of traffic to be analyzed, forwarded, or blocked by the firewall or device. The ACL may block traffic based on source and destination address, interface, port, protocol, thresholds and various other criteri
A. However,
network address translation (NAT) is not used for remote access. It is used to map private IPv4 addresses to a single public IPv4 address, allowing multiple internal hosts with private IPv4 addresses to access the internet via the public IPv4 address.
References:
BOOK pp. 28, 40-41, 110-112, 138. 335-336 htHYPERLINK
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_address_translation"tps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Network_ address_translation
NEW QUESTION 13
The Information Security Officer (ISO) is reviewing a summary of the findings from the last COOP tabletop exercise. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to determine which additional controls must be implemented to reduce the risk of an extended customer service outage due to the VoIP system being unavailable. Which of the following BEST describes the scenario presented and the document the ISO is reviewing?
Answer: D
Explanation:
VoIP is an integral part of network design and in particular remote access, that enables customers accessing and communicating with the company. If VoIP is unavailable then the company is in a situation that can be compared to downtime. And since the ISO is reviewing he summary of findings from the last COOP tabletop exercise, it can be said that the ISO is assessing the effect of a simulated downtime within the AAR.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Evaluating business implications due to a recent telephone system failure is done as part of Business impact Analysis (BIA) and a BIA is done mainly to, and as part of analyzing business critical business functions, identifying and quantifying the impact of the loss of those functions.
B: Possible downtime within the Risk Assessment (AR) is done to determine the quantitative or qualitative estimate of risk related to a specific situation and establishing an acceptable risk.
C: Requests for Quotations involves the research involved to procure a contract for security requirements; the whole process of inviting suppliers of a service to bid for the contract. References:
http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/business-imHYPERLINK "http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/business-impact-analysis"pact-analysis
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 39, 45-46, 297
NEW QUESTION 14
A company is in the process of implementing a new front end user interface for its customers, the goal is to provide them with more self-service functionality. The application has been written by developers over the last six months and the project is currently in the test phase.
Which of the following security activities should be implemented as part of the SDL in order to provide the MOST security coverage over the solution? (Select TWO).
Answer: DE
Explanation:
With grey box penetration testing it means that you have limited insight into the devise which would most probable by some code knowledge and this type of testing over the solution would provide the most security coverage under the circumstances.
A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. With a static code review it is assumed that you have all the sources available for the application that is being examined. By performing a static code review over the front end source code you can provide adequate security coverage over the solution.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Unit testing of the binary code will not provide the most security coverage.
B: Code review over a sampling of the front end source code will not provide adequate security coverage.
C: Black box penetration testing is best done when the source code is not available. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 168-169
NEW QUESTION 15
A security engineer is embedded with a development team to ensure security is built into products being developed. The security engineer wants to ensure developers are not blocked by a large number of security requirements applied at specific schedule points. Which of the following solutions BEST meets the engineer’s goal?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 16
In a situation where data is to be recovered from an attacker’s location, which of the following are the FIRST things to capture? (Select TWO).
Answer: CE
Explanation:
An exact copy of the attacker’s system must be captured for further investigation so that the original data can remain unchanged. An analyst will then start the process of capturing data from the most volatile to the least volatile.
The order of volatility from most volatile to least volatile is as follows: Data in RAM, including CPU cache and recently used data and applications Data in RAM, including system and network processes
Swap files (also known as paging files) stored on local disk drives Data stored on local disk drives
Logs stored on remote systems Archive media
Incorrect Answers:
A: Removable media is not regarded as volatile data.
B: Passwords written on scrap paper is not regarded as volatile data. D: Documents on the printer is not regarded as volatile data.
F: Data stored on the system hard drive is lower in the order of volatility compared to system memory.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 250-254
http://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/security-forensic-pHYPERLINK "http://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/security-forensic-performance-basedquestion/" erformaHYPERLINK "http://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/security-forensicperformance- based-question/"nce-based-question/
NEW QUESTION 17
A pentester must attempt to crack passwords on a windows domain that enforces strong complex passwords. Which of the following would crack the MOST passwords in the shortest time period?
Answer: B
Explanation:
The passwords in a Windows (Active Directory) domain are encrypted.
When a password is "tried" against a system it is "hashed" using encryption so that the actual password is never sent in clear text across the communications line. This prevents eavesdroppers from intercepting the password. The hash of a password usually looks like a bunch of garbage and is typically a different length than the original password. Your password might be "shitzu" but the hash of your password would look something like "7378347eedbfdd761619451949225ec1".
To verify a user, a system takes the hash value created by the password hashing function on the client computer and compares it to the hash value stored in a table on the server. If the hashes match, then
the user is authenticated and granted access.
Password cracking programs work in a similar way to the login process. The cracking program starts by taking plaintext passwords, running them through a hash algorithm, such as MD5, and then compares the hash output with the hashes in the stolen password file. If it finds a match then the program has cracked the password.
Rainbow Tables are basically huge sets of precomputed tables filled with hash values that are prematched to possible plaintext passwords. The Rainbow Tables essentially allow hackers to reverse
the hashing function to determine what the plaintext password might be.
The use of Rainbow Tables allow for passwords to be cracked in a very short amount of time compared with brute-force methods, however, the trade-off is that it takes a lot of storage (sometimes Terabytes) to hold the Rainbow Tables themselves.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Online password testing cannot be used to crack passwords on a windows domain.
C: The question states that the domain enforces strong complex passwords. Strong complex passwords must include upper and lowercase letters, numbers and punctuation marks. A word in the dictionary would not meet the strong complex passwords requirement so a dictionary attack would be ineffective at cracking the passwords in this case.
D: Brute force attacks against complex passwords take much longer than a rainbow tables attack. References:
http://netsecuriHYPERLINK "http://netsecurity.about.com/od/hackertools/a/Rainbow- Tables.htm"ty.about.com/od/hackertoHYPERLINK "http://netsecurity.about.com/od/hackertools/a/Rainbow-Tables.htm"ols/a/Rainbow- TableHYPERLINK "http://netsecurity.about.com/od/hackertools/a/Rainbow-Tables.htm"s.htm
NEW QUESTION 18
During the decommissioning phase of a hardware project, a security administrator is tasked with ensuring no sensitive data is released inadvertently. All paper records are scheduled to be shredded in a crosscut shredded, and the waste will be burned. The system drives and removable media have been removed prior to e-cycling the hardware.
Which of the following would ensure no data is recovered from the system droves once they are disposed of?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 19
A government organization operates and maintains several ICS environments. The categorization of one of the ICS environments led to a moderate baseline. The organization has complied a set of applicable security controls based on this categorization.
Given that this is a unique environment, which of the following should the organization do NEXT to determine if other security controls should be considered?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 20
Company policy requires that all company laptops meet the following baseline requirements: Software requirements:
Antivirus
Anti-malware Anti-spyware Log monitoring
Full-disk encryption
Terminal services enabled for RDP Administrative access for local users Hardware restrictions:
Bluetooth disabled FireWire disabled WiFi adapter disabled
Ann, a web developer, reports performance issues with her laptop and is not able to access any network resources. After further investigation, a bootkit was discovered and it was trying to access external websites. Which of the following hardening techniques should be applied to mitigate this specific issue from reoccurring? (Select TWO).
Answer: DG
Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of computer software, typically malicious, designed to enable access to a computer or areas of its software that would not otherwise be allowed (for example, to an unauthorized user) while at the same time masking its existence or the existence of other software. A bootkit is similar to a rootkit except the malware infects the master boot record on a hard disk. Malicious software such as bootkits or rootkits typically require administrative privileges to be installed.
Therefore, one method of preventing such attacks is to remove administrative access for local users. A common source of malware infections is portable USB flash drives. The flash drives are often plugged into less secure computers such as a user’s home computer and then taken to work and plugged in to a work computer. We can prevent this from happening by restricting or disabling access to USB devices.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Using a group policy to limit web access is not a practical solution. Users in a company often require Web access so restricting it will affect their ability to do their jobs.
B: Rootkits or Bootkits would not be caught by connecting to the network over a VPN so disabling VPN access will not help.
C: Removing full-disk encryption will not prevent Bootkits.
E: Bootkits are not caught by connecting to network resources using Telnet connection so disabling Telnet access to resources will not help.
F: Performing vulnerability scanning on a daily basis might help you to quickly detect Bootkits. However, vulnerability scanning does nothing to actually prevent the Bootkits.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rootkit
NEW QUESTION 21
The DLP solution has been showing some unidentified encrypted data being sent using FTP to a remote server. A vulnerability scan found a collection of Linux servers that are missing OS level patches. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that there are a few unidentified processes running on a number of the servers. What would be a key FIRST step for the data security team to undertake at this point?
Answer: E
Explanation:
Incident management (IM) is a necessary part of a security program. When effective, it mitigates business impact, identifies weaknesses in controls, and helps fine-tune response processes.
In this question, an attack has been identified and confirmed. When a server is compromised or used to commit a crime, it is often necessary to seize it for forensics analysis. Security teams often face two challenges when trying to remove a physical server from service: retention of potential evidence in volatile storage or removal of a device from a critical business process.
Evidence retention is a problem when the investigator wants to retain RAM content. For example, removing power from a server starts the process of mitigating business impact, but it also denies forensic analysis of data, processes, keys, and possible footprints left by an attacker.
A full a bit level image, including RAM should be taken of one or more of the Linux servers. In many cases, if your environment has been deliberately attacked, you may want to take legal action against the perpetrators. In order to preserve this option, you should gather evidence that can be used
against them, even if a decision is ultimately made not to pursue such action. It is extremely important to back up the compromised systems as soon as possible. Back up the systems prior to performing any actions that could affect data integrity on the original media.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Capturing process ID data and submitting it to anti-virus vendor for review would not be the first step. Furthermore, it is unlikely that a virus is the cause of the problem on the LINUX servers. It is much more likely that the missing OS level patches left the systems vulnerable.
B: Rebooting the Linux servers would lose the contents of the running RAM. This may be needed for litigation so a full backup including RAM should be taken first. Then the servers can be cleaned and patched.
C: Removing a single Linux server from production and placing it in quarantine would probably involve powering off the server. Powering off the server would lose the contents of the running RAM. This may be needed for litigation so a full backup including RAM should be taken first.
D: Notifying upper management of a security breach probably should be done after the security breach is contained. You should follow standard incident management procedures first. Reporting on the incident is one of the later steps in the process.
References:
http://whatis.techtarget.com/reference/FiHYPERLINK "http://whatis.techtarget.com/reference/Five- Steps-to-Incident-Management-in-a-Virtualized-Environment"ve-Steps-to-Incident-Management-ina-
Virtualized-Environment
https://technet.miHYPERLINK "https://technet.microsoft.com/enhttps:// certkingdom.com
us/library/cc700825.aspx"crosoft.com/en-us/library/cc700825.aspx
NEW QUESTION 22
The Information Security Officer (ISO) believes that the company has been targeted by cybercriminals and it is under a cyber attack. Internal services that are normally available to the public via the Internet are inaccessible, and employees in the office are unable to browse the Internet. The senior security engineer starts by reviewing the bandwidth at the border router, and notices that the incoming bandwidth on the router’s external interface is maxed out. The security engineer then inspects the following piece of log to try and determine the reason for the downtime, focusing on the company’s external router’s IP which is 128.20.176.19:
11:16:22.110343 IP 90.237.31.27.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400
11:16:22.110351 IP 23.27.112.200.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400
11:16:22.110358 IP 192.200.132.213.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400
11:16:22.110402 IP 70.192.2.55.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400
11:16:22.110406 IP 112.201.7.39.19 > 128.20.176.19.19: UDP, length 1400
Which of the following describes the findings the senior security engineer should report to the ISO and the BEST solution for service restoration?
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit displays logs that are indicative of an active fraggle attack. A Fraggle attack is similar to a smurf attack in that it is a denial of service attack, but the difference is that a fraggle attack makes
use of ICMP and UDP ports 7 and 19. Thus when the senior engineer uses a network analyzer to identify the attack he should contact the company’s ISP to block those malicious packets. Incorrect Answers:
B: The logs are indicative of an ongoing fraggle attack. Even though a fraggle attack id also a DOS attack the best form of action to take would be to ask the ISP to block the malicious packets.
C: Configuring a sinkhole to block a denial of service attack will not address the problem since the type of attack as per the logs indicates a fraggle attack.
D: A smurf attack spoofs the source address with the address of the victim, and then sends it out as a broadcast ping. Each system in the network will then respond, and flood the victim with echo replies. The logs do not indicate a smurf attack.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 165, 168 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fraggle_attacHYPERLINK "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fraggle_attack"k
NEW QUESTION 23
To meet a SLA, which of the following document should be drafted, defining the company’s internal interdependent unit responsibilities and delivery timelines.
Answer: B
Explanation:
OLA is an agreement between the internal support groups of an institution that supports SLA. According to the Operational Level Agreement, each internal support group has certain responsibilities to the other group. The OLA clearly depicts the performance and relationship of the internal service groups. The main objective of OLA is to ensure that all the support groups provide the intended ServiceLevelAgreement.
NEW QUESTION 24
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to
the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
Answer: AC
Explanation:
Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what files were changed.
Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the hash values differ, there is a difference between the two
images.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Steganography is a type of data exfiltration. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer.
D: According to the scenario, the desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Asking the desktop support if any changes to the images were made would therefore be redundant.
E: The question requires the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image, not when the date/time stamp manipulation occurred.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 18, 134
NEW QUESTION 25
Click on the exhibit buttions to view the four messages.
A security architect is working with a project team to deliver an important service that stores and processes customer banking details. The project, internally known as ProjectX, is due to launch its first set of features publicly within a week, but the team has not been able to implement encryptionat- rest of the customer records. The security architect is drafting an escalation email to senior leadership.
Which of the following BEST conveys the business impact for senior leadership?
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 26
An insurance company is looking to purchase a smaller company in another country. Which of the following tasks would the security administrator perform as part of the security due diligence?
Answer: B
Explanation:
IT security professionals should have a chance to review the security controls and practices of a company targeted for acquisition. Any irregularities that are found should be reported to management so that expenses and concerns are properly identified.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing switch and router configurations are not part of this process. C: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Performing a network penetration test is not part of this process.
D: Due diligence entails ensuring controls implemented by an organization continues to provide the required level of protection. Reviewing the firewall rule set and IPS logs are not part of this process. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 270, 332
NEW QUESTION 27
A new internal network segmentation solution will be implemented into the enterprise that consists of 200 internal firewalls. As part of running a pilot exercise, it was determined that it takes three changes to deploy a new application onto the network before it is operational. Security now has a
significant effect on overall availability. Which of the following would be the FIRST process to perform
as a result of these findings?
Answer: D
Explanation:
Checking whether control effectiveness complies with the complexity of the solution and then determining if there is not an alternative simpler solution would be the first procedure to follow in the light of the findings.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The SLA is in essence a contracted level of guaranteed service between thee cloud provider and the customer, of a certain level of protection, SLA’s also define targets for hardware and software, thus lowering the SLA is not an option.
B: A cost benefit analysis focus on calculating the costs, the benefits and then compare the results in order to see if the proposed solution is viable and whether the benefits outweigh the risks/costs. However, it is not good practice to lower the SLA.
C: Performing reviews are only done after implementation. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 199, 297-299
NEW QUESTION 28
A security administrator is performing VDI traffic data collection on a virtual server which migrates from one host to another. While reviewing the data collected by the protocol analyzer, the security administrator notices that sensitive data is present in the packet capture. Which of the following should the security administrator recommend to ensure the confidentiality of sensitive information during live VM migration, while minimizing latency issues?
Answer: A
Explanation:
VDI virtual machines can be migrated across physical hosts while the virtual machines are still powered on. In VMware, this is called vMotion. In Microsoft Hyper-V, this is called Live Migration. When a virtual machine is migrated between hosts, the data is unencrypted as it travels across the network. To prevent access to the data as it travels across the network, a dedicated network should be created for virtual machine migrations. The dedicated migration network should only be accessible by the virtual machine hosts to maximize security.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Database record encryption is used for encrypting database records only. This question does not state that the only sensitive data is database records. The data is at risk as it travels across the network when virtual machines are migrated between hosts. Data is unencrypted when it is transmitted over the network.
C: Full disk encryption is a good idea to secure data stored on disk. However, the data is unencrypted when it is transmitted over the network.
D: The sensitive data is on the VDI virtual machines. Storing the sensitive information on an isolated fiber channel network would make the information inaccessible from the virtual machines.
NEW QUESTION 29
A company contracts a security engineer to perform a penetration test of its client-facing web portal. Which of the following activities would be MOST appropriate?
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 30
A user asks a security practitioner for recommendations on securing a home network. The user recently purchased a connected home assistant and multiple IoT devices in an effort to automate the home. Some of the IoT devices are wearables, and other are installed in the user’s automobiles. The current home network is configured as a single flat network behind an ISP-supplied router. The router has a single IP address, and the router performs NAT on incoming traffic to route it to individual devices.
Which of the following security controls would address the user’s privacy concerns and provide the BEST level of security for the home network?
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 31
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