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Online CAS-003 free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following activities is commonly deemed “OUT OF SCOPE” when undertaking a penetration test?

  • A. Test password complexity of all login fields and input validation of form fields
  • B. Reverse engineering any thick client software that has been provided for the test
  • C. Undertaking network-based denial of service attacks in production environment
  • D. Attempting to perform blind SQL injection and refilected cross-site scripting attacks
  • E. Running a vulnerability scanning tool to assess network and host weaknesses

Answer: C

Explanation:
Penetration testing is done to look at a network in an adversarial fashion with the aim of looking at what an attacker will use. Penetration testing is done without malice and undertaking a networkbased denial of service attack in the production environment is as such ‘OUT OF SCOPE’.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Testing the password complexity of login fields and the input validation of form fields can form part of penetration testing. This is part of the gaining access phase of penetration testing.
B: Making use of reverse engineering a thick client software package would fall within the scope of penetration testing.
D: Blind SQL injection and refilected cross-site scripting attacks can be used in penetration testing. It would form part of the escalation of privilege step in penetration testing.
E: A vulnerability scanning tool to check network and host weakness would be admissible in penetration testing because it is part of the scanning process of penetration testing. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 91, 166-167

NEW QUESTION 2
A software development team has spent the last 18 months developing a new web-based front-end that will allow clients to check the status of their orders as they proceed through manufacturing. The marketing team schedules a launch party to present the new application to the client base in two weeks. Before the launch, the security team discovers numerous flaws that may introduce dangerous vulnerabilities, allowing direct access to a database used by manufacturing. The development team did not plan to remediate these vulnerabilities during development. Which of the following SDLC best practices should the development team have followed?

  • A. Implementing regression testing
  • B. Completing user acceptance testing
  • C. Verifying system design documentation
  • D. Using a SRTM

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
A security engineer is responsible for monitoring company applications for known vulnerabilities. Which of the following is a way to stay current on explogts and information security news?

  • A. Update company policies and procedures
  • B. Subscribe to security mailing lists
  • C. Implement security awareness training
  • D. Ensure that the organization vulnerability management plan is up-to-date

Answer: B

Explanation:
Subscribing to bug and vulnerability, security mailing lists is a good way of staying abreast and keeping up to date with the latest in those fields.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Updating company policies and procedures are not staying current on the topic since attacks are generated from outside sources and the best way to stay current on what is happening in that particular topic is to subscribe to a mailing list on the topic.
C: Security awareness training serves best as an operational control insofar as mitigating risk is concerned and not to stay current on the topic.
D: Making sure the company vulnerability plan is up to date is essential but will not keep you up to date on the topic as a subscription to a security mailing list.
References:
Conklin, Wm. Arthur, Gregory White and Dwayne Williams, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Certification Study Guide (Exam CAS-001), McGraw-Hill, Columbus, 2012, p. 139 Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 219

NEW QUESTION 4
A risk manager has decided to use likelihood and consequence to determine the risk of an event occurring to a company asset. Which of the following is a limitation of this approach to risk management?

  • A. Subjective and based on an individual's experience.
  • B. Requires a high degree of upfront work to gather environment details.
  • C. Difficult to differentiate between high, medium, and low risks.
  • D. Allows for cost and benefit analysis.
  • E. Calculations can be extremely complex to manag

Answer: A

Explanation:
Using likelihood and consequence to determine risk is known as qualitative risk analysis.
With qualitative risk analysis, the risk would be evaluated for its probability and impact using a numbered ranking system such as low, medium, and high or perhaps using a 1 to 10 scoring system. After qualitative analysis has been performed, you can then perform quantitative risk analysis. A
Quantitative risk analysis is a further analysis of the highest priority risks during which a numerical or quantitative rating is assigned to the risk.
Qualitative risk analysis is usually quick to perform and no special tools or software is required. However, qualitative risk analysis is subjective and based on the user’s experience.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Qualitative risk analysis does not require a high degree of upfront work to gather environment details. This answer applies more to quantitative risk analysis.
C: Although qualitative risk analysis does not use numeric values to quantify likelihood or consequence compared to quantitative analysis, we can all differentiate between the terms high, medium, and low when talking about risk.
D: Qualitative risk analysis does not allow for cost and benefit analysis, quantitative risk analysis does.
E: Calculations for qualitative risk analysis are not extremely complex to manage; they can be quantitative risk analysis.
References: https://www.passionatepm.com/blog/quHYPERLINK
"https://www.passionatepm.com/blog/qualitative-risk-analysis-vs-quantitative-risk-analysis-pmpconcept- 1"alitative-risk-analysis-vs-quantitative-risk-analysis-pmp-concept-1

NEW QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an external pressure that causes companies to hire security assessors and penetration testers?

  • A. Lack of adequate in-house testing skills.
  • B. Requirements for geographically based assessments
  • C. Cost reduction measures
  • D. Regulatory insistence on independent review

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
An analyst connects to a company web conference hosted on www.webconference.com/meetingID#01234 and observes that numerous guests have been allowed to join, without providing identifying information. The topics covered during the web conference are considered proprietary to the company. Which of the following security concerns does the analyst present to management?

  • A. Guest users could present a risk to the integrity of the company’s information.
  • B. Authenticated users could sponsor guest access that was previously approved by management.
  • C. Unauthenticated users could present a risk to the confidentiality of the company’s information.
  • D. Meeting owners could sponsor guest access if they have passed a background chec

Answer: C

Explanation:
The issue at stake in this question is confidentiality of information. Topics covered during the web conference are considered proprietary and should remain confidential, which means it should not be shared with unauthorized users.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Integrity of information is centered on the modification or alternation of information. Information remains unchanged and is in its true original form during transmission and storage. The issue of guests at a Web conference is related to confidentiality of information.
B: The issue at stake in this question is confidentiality of information. Topics covered during the web conference are considered proprietary and should remain confidential, which means it should not be shared with guests.
D: The issue at stake in this question is confidentiality of information. Topics covered during the web conference are considered proprietary and should remain confidential, which means it should not be shared with guests, whether they have passed background checks or not.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 3

NEW QUESTION 7
A small company is developing a new Internet-facing web application. The security requirements are: Users of the web application must be uniquely identified and authenticated.
Users of the web application will not be added to the company’s directory services. Passwords must not be stored in the code.
Which of the following meets these requirements?

  • A. Use OpenID and allow a third party to authenticate users.
  • B. Use TLS with a shared client certificate for all users.
  • C. Use SAML with federated directory services.
  • D. Use Kerberos and browsers that support SAM

Answer: A

Explanation:
Users create accounts by selecting an OpenID identity provider, and then use those accounts to sign onto any website which accepts OpenID authentication.
OpenID is an open standard and decentralized protocol by the non-profit OpenID Foundation that allows users to be authenticated by certain co-operating sites (known as Relying Parties or RP) using a third party service. This eliminates the need for webmasters to provide their own ad hoc systems and allowing users to consolidate their digital identities. In other words, users can log into multiple unrelated websites without having to register with their information over and over again.
Several large organizations either issue or accept OpenIDs on their websites according to the OpenID Foundation: AOL, Blogger, Flickr, France Telecom, Google, Hyves, LiveJournal, Microsoft (provider name Microsoft account), Mixi, Myspace, Novell, Orange, Sears, Sun, Telecom Italia, Universal Music Group, VeriSign, WordPress, and Yahoo!. Other providers include BBC, IBM, PayPal, and Steam. Incorrect Answers:
B: The question states that users of the web application must be uniquely identified and authenticated. A shared client certificate for all users does not meet this requirement.
C: The question states that users of the web application will not be added to the company’s directory services. SAML with federated directory services would require that the users are added to the directory services.
D: The question states that users of the web application must be uniquely identified and authenticated. Kerberos and browsers that support SAML provides no authentication mechanism. References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OpenID

NEW QUESTION 8
After being notified of an issue with the online shopping cart, where customers are able to arbitrarily change the price of listed items, a programmer analyzes the following piece of code used by a web based shopping cart.
SELECT ITEM FROM CART WHERE ITEM=ADDSLASHES($USERINPUT);
The programmer found that every time a user adds an item to the cart, a temporary file is created on the web server /tmp directory. The temporary file has a name which is generated by concatenating the content of the $USERINPUT variable and a timestamp in the form of MM-DD-YYYY, (e.g. smartphone-12-25-2013.tmp) containing the price of the item being purchased. Which of the following is MOST likely being explogted to manipulate the price of a shopping cart’s items?

  • A. Input validation
  • B. SQL injection
  • C. TOCTOU
  • D. Session hijacking

Answer: C

Explanation:
In this question, TOCTOU is being explogted to allow the user to modify the temp file that contains the price of the item.
In software development, time of check to time of use (TOCTOU) is a class of software bug caused by
changes in a system between the checking of a condition (such as a security credential) and the use of the results of that check. This is one example of a race condition.
A simple example is as follows: Consider a Web application that allows a user to edit pages, and also allows administrators to lock pages to prevent editing. A user requests to edit a page, getting a form which can be used to alter its content. Before the user submits the form, an administrator locks the page, which should prevent editing. However, since editing has already begun, when the user submits the form, those edits (which have already been made) are accepted. When the user began editing, the appropriate authorization was checked, and the user was indeed allowed to edit. However, the authorization was used later, at a time when edits should no longer have been allowed. TOCTOU race conditions are most common in Unix between operations on the file system, but can occur in other contexts, including local sockets and improper use of database transactions.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Input validation is used to ensure that the correct data is entered into a field. For example, input validation would prevent letters typed into a field that expects number from being accepted. The explogt in this question is not an example of input validation.
B: SQL injection is a type of security explogt in which the attacker adds Structured Query Language (SQL) code to a Web form input box to gain access to resources or make changes to dat
A. The explogt
in this question is not an example of a SQL injection attack.
D: Session hijacking, also known as TCP session hijacking, is a method of taking over a Web user session by obtaining the session ID and masquerading as the authorized user. The explogt in this question is not an example of session hijacking.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wikiHYPERLINK
"https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_of_check_to_time_of_use"/Time_of_check_to_time_of_use

NEW QUESTION 9
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST important?

  • A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
  • B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
  • C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
  • D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks

Answer: A

Explanation:
Insecure direct object references are used to access dat
A. CSRF attacks the functions of a web site which could access dat
A. A Smurf attack is used to take down a system.
A direct object reference is likely to occur when a developer exposes a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file, directory, or database key without any validation mechanism which will allow attackers to manipulate these references to access unauthorized data.
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that occurs when a malicious Web site, email, blog, instant message, or program causes a user’s Web browser to perform an unwanted action on a trusted site for which the user is currently authenticated. The impact of a successful cross-site request forgery attack is limited to the capabilities exposed by the vulnerable application. For example, this attack could result in a transfer of funds, changing a password, or purchasing an item in the user's context. In effect, CSRF attacks are used by an attacker to make a target system perform a function (funds Transfer, form submission etc.) via the target's browser without knowledge of the target user, at least until the unauthorized function has been committed.
A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees.
Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Application DoS is an attack designed to affect the availability of an application. Buffer overflow is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
C: Resource exhaustion is an attack designed to affect the availability of a system. Privilege escalation is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
D: The options in the other answers (Insecure direct object references, privilege escalation, SQL injection) are more of a threat to data confidentiality than the options in this answer. References:
http://www.tutorialspoint.com/secuHYPERLINK "http://www.tutorialspoint.com/security_testing/insecure_direct_object_reference.htm"rity_testing
/insecure_direct_object_reference.htm https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-Site_HYPERLINK "https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-
Site_Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet"Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_HYPERLINK "https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross- Site_Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet"Prevention_Cheat_Sheet http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/S/smurf.html

NEW QUESTION 10
Two competing companies experienced similar attacks on their networks from various threat actors. To improve response times, the companies wish to share some threat intelligence about the sources and methods of attack. Which of the following business documents would be BEST to document this engagement?

  • A. Business partnership agreement
  • B. Memorandum of understanding
  • C. Service-level agreement
  • D. Interconnection security agreement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11
The latest independent research shows that cyber attacks involving SCADA systems grew an average of 15% per year in each of the last four years, but that this year’s growth has slowed to around 7%. Over the same time period, the number of attacks against applications has decreased or stayed flat each year. At the start of the measure period, the incidence of PC boot loader or BIOS based attacks was negligible. Starting two years ago, the growth in the number of PC boot loader attacks has grown exponentially. Analysis of these trends would seem to suggest which of the following strategies should be employed?

  • A. Spending on SCADA protections should stay steady; application control spending should increase substantially and spending on PC boot loader controls should increase substantially.
  • B. Spending on SCADA security controls should stay steady; application control spending should decrease slightly and spending on PC boot loader protections should increase substantially.
  • C. Spending all controls should increase by 15% to start; spending on application controls should be suspended, and PC boot loader protection research should increase by 100%.
  • D. Spending on SCADA security controls should increase by 15%; application control spending should increase slightly, and spending on PC boot loader protections should remain steady.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spending on the security controls should stay steady because the attacks are still ongoing albeit reduced in occurrence Due to the incidence of BIOS-based attacks growing exponentially as the application attacks being decreased or staying flat spending should increase in this field. Incorrect Answers:
A: The SCADA security control spending and not the SCADA protection spending should stay steady. There is no need to in spending on application control.
C: There is no n increase spending on all security controls.
D: This is partly correct, but the spending on application control does not have to increase and the BIOS protections should increase since these attacks are now more prevalent.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 343
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCADA

NEW QUESTION 12
A security analyst is reviewing logs and discovers that a company-owned computer issued to an employee is generating many alerts and analyst continues to review the log events and discovers that a non-company-owned device from a different, unknown IP address is general same events. The analyst informs the manager of these finding, and the manager explains that these activities are already known and . . . ongoing simulation. Given this scenario, which of the following roles are the analyst, the employee, and the manager fillings?

  • A. The analyst is red team The employee is blue team The manager is white team
  • B. The analyst is white team The employee is red team The manager is blue team
  • C. The analyst is red team The employee is white team The manager is blue team
  • D. The analyst is blue team The employee is red team The manager is white team

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has requested that a SIEM solution be implemented. The CISO wants to know upfront what the projected TCO would be before looking further into this concern. Two vendor proposals have been received:
Vendor A: product-based solution which can be purchased by the pharmaceutical company.
Capital expenses to cover central log collectors, correlators, storage and management consoles expected to be $150,000. Operational expenses are expected to be a 0.5 full time employee (FTE) to manage the solution, and 1 full time employee to respond to incidents per year.
Vendor B: managed service-based solution which can be the outsourcer for the pharmaceutical company’s needs.
Bundled offering expected to be $100,000 per year.
Operational expenses for the pharmaceutical company to partner with the vendor are expected to be a 0.5 FTE per year.
Internal employee costs are averaged to be $80,000 per year per FTE. Based on calculating TCO of the two vendor proposals over a 5 year period, which of the following options is MOST accurate?

  • A. Based on cost alone, having an outsourced solution appears cheaper.
  • B. Based on cost alone, having an outsourced solution appears to be more expensive.
  • C. Based on cost alone, both outsourced an in-sourced solutions appear to be the same.
  • D. Based on cost alone, having a purchased product solution appears cheape

Answer: A

Explanation:
The costs of making use of an outsources solution will actually be a savings for the company thus the outsourced solution is a cheaper option over a 5 year period because it amounts to 0,5 FTE per year for the company and at present the company expense if $80,000 per year per FTE.
For the company to go alone it will cost $80,000 per annum per FTE = $400,000 over 5 years. With Vendor a $150,000 + $200,000 (½ FTE) = $350,000
With Vendor B = $100,000 it will be more expensive. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 130

NEW QUESTION 14
A company has entered into a business agreement with a business partner for managed human resources services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to provide documentation that is required to set up a business-to-business VPN between the two organizations. Which of the following is required in this scenario?

  • A. ISA
  • B. BIA
  • C. SLA
  • D. RA

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
A storage as a service company implements both encryption at rest as well as encryption in transit of customers’ dat

  • A. The security administrator is concerned with the overall security of the encrypted customer data stored by the company servers and wants the development team to implement asolution that will strengthen the customer’s encryption ke
  • B. Which of the following, if implemented, will MOST increase the time an offline password attack against the customers’ data would take?
  • C. key = NULL ; for (int i=0; i<5000; i++) { key = sha(key + password) }
  • D. password = NULL ; for (int i=0; i<10000; i++) { password = sha256(key) }
  • E. password = password + sha(password+salt) + aes256(password+salt)
  • F. key = aes128(sha256(password), password))

Answer: A

Explanation:
References:
http://HYPERLINK "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4948322/fundamental-difference-betweenhashing- and-encryption-algorithms"sHYPERLINK
"http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4948322/fundamental-difference-between-hashing-andencryption- algorithms"tackoverflow.com/questions/4948322/fundamental-difference-betweenhashing-
and-encryption-aHYPERLINK "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4948322/fundamentaldifference- between-hashing-and-encryption-algorithms"lgorithms

NEW QUESTION 16
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