NEW QUESTION 1
A company has decided to lower costs by conducting an internal assessment on specific devices and various internal and external subnets. The assessment will be done during regular office hours, but it must not affect any production servers. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to complete the assessment? (Select two.)

• A. Agent-based vulnerability scan
• B. Black-box penetration testing
• C. Configuration review
• D. Social engineering
• E. Malware sandboxing
• F. Tabletop exercise

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 2
A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management process using?

• A. Agile
• B. SDL
• C. Waterfall
• D. Joint application development

Answer: A

Explanation:
In agile software development, teams of programmers and business experts work closely together, using an iterative approach.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Microsoft developed security development life cycle (SDL) is designed to minimize the security-related design and coding bugs in software. An organization that implements SDL has a central security team that performs security functions.
C: The waterfall model is a sequential software development processes, in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards through the phases of conception, initiation, analysis, design, construction, testing, production/implementation and maintenance.
D: The vendor is still responsible for developing the solution, Therefore this is not an example of joint application development.
References:
BOOK pp. 371, 374
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Waterfall_model

NEW QUESTION 3
A consultant is hired to perform a passive vulnerability assessment of a company to determine what information might be collected about the company and its employees. The assessment will be considered successful if the consultant can discover the name of one of the IT administrators. Which of the following is MOST likely to produce the needed information?

• A. Whois
• B. DNS enumeration
• C. Vulnerability scanner
• D. Fingerprinting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
A company has hired an external security consultant to conduct a thorough review of all aspects of corporate security. The company is particularly concerned about unauthorized access to its physical offices resulting in network compromises. Which of the following should the consultant recommend be performed to evaluate potential risks?

• A. The consultant should attempt to gain access to physical offices through social engineering and then attempt data exfiltration
• B. The consultant should be granted access to all physical access control systems to review logs and evaluate the likelihood of the threat
• C. The company should conduct internal audits of access logs and employee social media feeds to identify potential insider threats
• D. The company should install a temporary CCTV system to detect unauthorized access to physical offices

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Company policy requires that all company laptops meet the following baseline requirements: Software requirements:
Antivirus
Anti-malware Anti-spyware Log monitoring
Full-disk encryption
Terminal services enabled for RDP Administrative access for local users Hardware restrictions:
Bluetooth disabled FireWire disabled WiFi adapter disabled
Ann, a web developer, reports performance issues with her laptop and is not able to access any network resources. After further investigation, a bootkit was discovered and it was trying to access external websites. Which of the following hardening techniques should be applied to mitigate this specific issue from reoccurring? (Select TWO).

• A. Group policy to limit web access
• B. Restrict VPN access for all mobile users
• C. Remove full-disk encryption
• D. Remove administrative access to local users
• E. Restrict/disable TELNET access to network resources
• F. Perform vulnerability scanning on a daily basis
• G. Restrict/disable USB access

Answer: DG

Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of computer software, typically malicious, designed to enable access to a computer or areas of its software that would not otherwise be allowed (for example, to an unauthorized user) while at the same time masking its existence or the existence of other software. A bootkit is similar to a rootkit except the malware infects the master boot record on a hard disk. Malicious software such as bootkits or rootkits typically require administrative privileges to be installed.
Therefore, one method of preventing such attacks is to remove administrative access for local users. A common source of malware infections is portable USB flash drives. The flash drives are often plugged into less secure computers such as a user’s home computer and then taken to work and plugged in to a work computer. We can prevent this from happening by restricting or disabling access to USB devices.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Using a group policy to limit web access is not a practical solution. Users in a company often require Web access so restricting it will affect their ability to do their jobs.
B: Rootkits or Bootkits would not be caught by connecting to the network over a VPN so disabling VPN access will not help.
C: Removing full-disk encryption will not prevent Bootkits.
E: Bootkits are not caught by connecting to network resources using Telnet connection so disabling Telnet access to resources will not help.
F: Performing vulnerability scanning on a daily basis might help you to quickly detect Bootkits. However, vulnerability scanning does nothing to actually prevent the Bootkits.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rootkit

NEW QUESTION 6
Executive management is asking for a new manufacturing control and workflow automation solution. This application will facilitate management of proprietary information and closely guarded corporate trade secrets.
The information security team has been a part of the department meetings and come away with the following notes:
Human resources would like complete access to employee data stored in the application. They would like automated data interchange with the employee management application, a cloud-based SaaS application.
Sales is asking for easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers.
Legal is asking for adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets. They are also concerned with data ownership questions and legal jurisdiction.
Manufacturing is asking for ease of use. Employees working the assembly line cannot be bothered with additional steps or overhead. System interaction needs to be quick and easy.
Quality assurance is concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance of the product being produced. They would like read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining.
The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. It has extensive ACL functionality, but also has readily available APIs for extensibility. It supports read-only access, kiosk automation, custom fields, and data encryption.
Which of the following departments’ request is in contrast to the favored solution?

• A. Manufacturing
• B. Legal
• C. Sales
• D. Quality assurance
• E. Human resources

Answer: E

Explanation:
The human resources department wanted complete access to employee data stored in the application, and an automated data interchange with their cloud-based SaaS employee management application. However, the favored solution provides read-only access and is hosted onsite. Incorrect Answers:
A: The manufacturing department wanted a quick and easy user friendly system. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would meet the manufacturing department’s requests.
B: The legal department wanted a system that provides adequate safeguards to protect trade secrets and was concerned with data ownership and legal jurisdiction. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that would be hosted onsite. This would address the legal department’s concerns with data ownership and legal jurisdiction. The application also provides data encryption, which would protect trade secrets.
C: The sales department wanted an easy order tracking to facilitate feedback to customers. The favored solution is a user friendly software application that supports custom fields, which could be used for order tracking.
D: The quality assurance department was concerned about managing the end product and tracking overall performance. They also wanted read-only access to the entire workflow process for monitoring and baselining. These are met by the favored solution.

NEW QUESTION 7
A managed service provider is designing a log aggregation service for customers who no longer want to manage an internal SIEM infrastructure. The provider expects that customers will send all types of logs to them, and that log files could contain very sensitive entries. Customers have indicated they want on-premises and cloud-based infrastructure logs to be stored in this new service. An engineer, who is designing the new service, is deciding how to segment customers. Which of the following is the BEST statement for the engineer to take into consideration?

• A. Single-tenancy is often more expensive and has less efficient resource utilizatio
• B. Multi-tenancy may increase the risk of cross-customer exposure in the event of service vulnerabilities.
• C. The managed service provider should outsource security of the platform to an existing cloud compan
• D. This will allow the new log service to be launched faster and with well-tested security controls.
• E. Due to the likelihood of large log volumes, the service provider should use a multi-tenancy model for the data storage tier, enable data deduplication for storage cost efficiencies, and encrypt data at rest.
• F. The most secure design approach would be to give customers on-premises appliances, install agents on endpoints, and then remotely manage the service via a VPN.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
In the past, the risk committee at Company A has shown an aversion to even minimal amounts of risk acceptance. A security engineer is preparing recommendations regarding the risk of a proposed introducing legacy ICS equipment. The project will introduce a minor vulnerability into the enterprise. This vulnerability does not significantly expose the enterprise to risk and would be expensive against.
Which of the following strategies should the engineer recommended be approved FIRST?

• A. Avoid
• B. Mitigate
• C. Transfer
• D. Accept

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
An enterprise must ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved. The solution must support dual factor mutual authentication with strong identity assurance. In order to reduce costs and administrative overhead, the security architect wants to outsource identity proofing and second factor digital delivery to the third party. Which of the following solutions will address the enterprise requirements?

• A. Implementing federated network access with the third party.
• B. Using a HSM at the network perimeter to handle network device access.
• C. Using a VPN concentrator which supports dual factor via hardware tokens.
• D. Implementing 802.1x with EAP-TTLS across the infrastructur

Answer: D

Explanation:
IEEE 802.1X (also known as Dot1x) is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols. It provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or WLAN.
802.1X authentication involves three parties: a supplicant, an authenticator, and an authentication server. The supplicant is a client device (such as a laptop) that wishes to attach to the LAN/WLAN - though the term 'supplicant' is also used interchangeably to refer to the software running on the client that provides credentials to the authenticator. The authenticator is a network device, such as an Ethernet switch or wireless access point; and the authentication server is typically a host running software supporting the RADIUS and EAP protocols.
The authenticator acts like a security guard to a protected network. The supplicant (i.e., client device) is not allowed access through the authenticator to the protected side of the network until the supplicant’s identity has been validated and authorized. An analogy to this is providing a valid visa at the airport's arrival immigration before being allowed to enter the country. With 802.1X port-based authentication, the supplicant provides credentials, such as user name/password or digital
certificate, to the authenticator, and the authenticator forwards the credentials to the authentication server for verification. If the authentication server determines the credentials are valid, the supplicant (client device) is allowed to access resources located on the protected side of the network.
EAP-TTLS (Tunneled Transport Layer Security) is designed to provide authentication that is as strong as EAP-TLS, but it does not require that each user be issued a certificate. Instead, only the authentication servers are issued certificates. User authentication is performed by password, but the password credentials are transported in a securely encrypted tunnel established based upon the
server certificates. Incorrect Answers:
A: Federated network access provides user access to networks by using a single logon. The logon is authenticated by a party that is trusted to all the networks. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
B: A hardware security module (HSM) is a physical computing device that safeguards and manages digital keys for strong authentication and provides cryptoprocessing. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
C: A VPN concentrator provides VPN connections and is typically used for creating site-to-site VPN architectures. It does not ensure that all devices that connect to its networks have been previously approved.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1X
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aHYPERLINK "https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aaa_802/sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP- 024.html"aa_802/HYPERLINK "https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/software/aaa_802/sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP- 024.html"sbrc/sbrc70/sw-sbrc-admin/html/EAP-024.html

NEW QUESTION 10
The risk manager has requested a security solution that is centrally managed, can easily be updated, and protects end users' workstations from both known and unknown malicious attacks when connected to either the office or home network. Which of the following would BEST meet this requirement?

• A. HIPS
• B. UTM
• C. Antivirus
• D. NIPS
• E. DLP

Answer: A

Explanation:
In this question, we need to protect the workstations when connected to either the office or home network. Therefore, we need a solution that stays with the workstation when the user takes the computer home.
A HIPS (Host Intrusion Prevention System) is software installed on a host which monitors the host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host with the aim of detecting and preventing intrusion.
Intrusion prevention systems (IPS), also known as intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS), are network security appliances that monitor network and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it.
Intrusion prevention systems are considered extensions of intrusion detection systems because they both monitor network traffic and/or system activities for malicious activity. The main differences are, unlike intrusion detection systems, intrusion prevention systems are placed in-line and are able to actively prevent/block intrusions that are detected. More specifically, IPS can take such actions as sending an alarm, dropping the malicious packets, resetting the connection and/or blocking the traffic from the offending IP address.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Unified threat management (UTM) is a primary network gateway defense solution for organizations. In theory, UTM is the evolution of the traditional firewall into an all-inclusive security product able to perform multiple security functions within one single system: network firewalling, network intrusion prevention and gateway antivirus (AV), gateway anti-spam, VPN, content filtering, load balancing, data loss prevention and on-appliance reporting. However, UTM is designed to protect a network; it will not protect the user’s workstations when connected to their home
networks as required in this question.
C: Antivirus software will protect against attacks aided by known viruses. However, it will not protect against unknown attacks as required in this question.
D: NIPS stands for Network Intrusion Prevention Systems. A NIPS is designed to protect a network; it will not protect the user’s workstations when connected to their home networks as required in this question.
E: Data loss prevention (DLP) is a strategy for making sure that end users do not send sensitive or critical information outside the corporate network. DLP does not protect against malicious attacks. References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wHYPERLINK "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrusion_prevention_system"iki/Intrusion_prevention_system

NEW QUESTION 11
A company is in the process of implementing a new front end user interface for its customers, the goal is to provide them with more self-service functionality. The application has been written by developers over the last six months and the project is currently in the test phase.
Which of the following security activities should be implemented as part of the SDL in order to provide the MOST security coverage over the solution? (Select TWO).

• A. Perform unit testing of the binary code
• B. Perform code review over a sampling of the front end source code
• C. Perform black box penetration testing over the solution
• D. Perform grey box penetration testing over the solution
• E. Perform static code review over the front end source code

Answer: DE

Explanation:
With grey box penetration testing it means that you have limited insight into the devise which would most probable by some code knowledge and this type of testing over the solution would provide the most security coverage under the circumstances.
A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. With a static code review it is assumed that you have all the sources available for the application that is being examined. By performing a static code review over the front end source code you can provide adequate security coverage over the solution.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Unit testing of the binary code will not provide the most security coverage.
B: Code review over a sampling of the front end source code will not provide adequate security coverage.
C: Black box penetration testing is best done when the source code is not available. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 168-169

NEW QUESTION 12
A company is developing requirements for a customized OS build that will be used in an embedded environment. The company procured hardware that is capable of reducing the likelihood of successful buffer overruns while executables are processing. Which of the following capabilities must be included for the OS to take advantage of this critical hardware-based countermeasure?

• A. Application whitelisting
• B. NX/XN bit
• C. ASLR
• D. TrustZone
• E. SCP

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
A small company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has asked its Chief Security Officer (CSO) to improve the company’s security posture quickly with regard to targeted attacks. Which of the following
should the CSO conduct FIRST?

• A. Survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
• B. Purchase multiple threat feeds to ensure diversity and implement blocks for malicious traffic.
• C. Conduct an internal audit against industry best practices to perform a qualitative analysis.
• D. Deploy a UTM solution that receives frequent updates from a trusted industry vendo

Answer: A

Explanation:
Security posture refers to the overall security plan from planning through to implementation and comprises technical and non-technical policies, procedures and controls to protect from both internal and external threats. From a security standpoint, one of the first questions that must be answered in improving the overall security posture of an organization is to identify where data
resides. All the advances that were made by technology make this very difficult. The best way then to improve your company’s security posture is to first survey threat feeds from services inside the same industry.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Purchasing multiple threat feeds will provide better security posture, but the first step is still to survey threats from services within the same industry.
C: Conducting an internal audit is not the first step in improving security posture of your company. D: Deploying a UTM solution to get frequent updates is not the first step to take when tasked with the job of improving security posture.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 99

NEW QUESTION 14
A security analyst, Ann, states that she believes Internet facing file transfer servers are being attacked. Which of the following is evidence that would aid Ann in making a case to management that action needs to be taken to safeguard these servers?

• A. Provide a report of all the IP addresses that are connecting to the systems and their locations
• B. Establish alerts at a certain threshold to notify the analyst of high activity
• C. Provide a report showing the file transfer logs of the servers
• D. Compare the current activity to the baseline of normal activity

Answer: D

Explanation:
In risk assessment a baseline forms the foundation for how an organization needs to increase or enhance its current level of security. This type of assessment will provide Ann with the necessary information to take to management.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Reports of IP addresses that connect to the systems and their locations does not prove that your servers are being attacked; it just shows who is connecting.
B: High activity does not necessarily mean attacks being carried out.
C: Logs reveal specific activities and the sequence of events that occurred. The file transfer logs of the servers still have to be compared to a baseline of what is normal.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 210, 235

NEW QUESTION 15
To prepare for an upcoming audit, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) asks for all 1200 vulnerabilities on production servers to be remediated. The security engineer must determine which vulnerabilities represent real threats that can be explogted so resources can be prioritized to migrate the most dangerous risks. The CISO wants the security engineer to act in the same manner as would an external threat, while using vulnerability scan results to prioritize any actions. Which of the following approaches is described?

• A. Blue team
• B. Red team
• C. Black box
• D. White team

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
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