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The Secret of SY0-401 training




It is impossible to pass CompTIA SY0-401 exam without any help in the short term. Come to Examcollection soon and find the most advanced, correct and guaranteed CompTIA SY0-401 practice questions. You will get a surprising result by our Rebirth CompTIA Security+ Certification practice guides.

2021 Mar SY0-401 pdf exam

Q241. Prior to leaving for an extended vacation, Joe uses his mobile phone to take a picture of his family in the house living room. Joe posts the picture on a popular social media site together with the message: "Heading to our two weeks vacation to Italy." Upon returning home, Joe discovers that the house was burglarized. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the house was burglarized if nobody knew Joe’s home address? 

A. Joe has enabled the device access control feature on his mobile phone. 

B. Joe’s home address can be easily found using the TRACEROUTE command. 

C. The picture uploaded to the social media site was geo-tagged by the mobile phone. 

D. The message posted on the social media site informs everyone the house will be empty. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Geo-tagging is the process of embedding the GPS coordinates in image files and images taken using a smartphone or a digital camera. The geotagged information accompanying the image allows anyone to discover the precise location where the image was taken. 


Q242. Which of the following is the difference between identification and authentication of a user? 

A. Identification tells who the user is and authentication tells whether the user is allowed to logon to a system. 

B. Identification tells who the user is and authentication proves it. 

C. Identification proves who the user is and authentication is used to keep the users data secure. 

D. Identification proves who the user is and authentication tells the user what they are allowed to do. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Identification is described as the claiming of an identity, and authentication is described as the act of verifying or proving the claimed identity. 


Q243. A certificate authority takes which of the following actions in PKI? 

A. Signs and verifies all infrastructure messages 

B. Issues and signs all private keys 

C. Publishes key escrow lists to CRLs 

D. Issues and signs all root certificates 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A certificate authority can issue multiple certificates in the form of a tree structure. A root certificate is part of a public key infrastructure (PKI) scheme. The most common commercial variety is based on the ITU-T X.509 standard, which normally includes a digital signature from a certificate authority (CA). Note: In cryptography and computer security, a root certificate is an unsigned public key certificate (also called self-signed certificate) that identifies the Root Certificate Authority (CA). 


Q244. A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN? 

A. WPA2 CCMP 

B. WPA 

C. WPA with MAC filtering 

D. WPA2 TKIP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management 

Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation. 


Q245. Which of the following application security testing techniques is implemented when an automated system generates random input data? 

A. Fuzzing 

B. XSRF 

C. Hardening 

D. Input validation 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Fuzzing is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data to as inputs to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failed validation, or memory leaks. 


Up to the immediate present SY0-401 book:

Q246. An administrator is assigned to monitor servers in a data center. A web server connected to the Internet suddenly experiences a large spike in CPU activity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? 

A. Spyware 

B. Trojan 

C. Privilege escalation 

D. DoS 

Answer:

Explanation: 

A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a DoS attack from multiple computers whereas a DoS attack is from a single computer. In terms of the actual method of attack, DDoS and DoS attacks are the same. One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages cause challenges for defense mechanisms. For example, merely purchasing more incoming bandwidth than the current volume of the attack might not help, because the attacker might be able to simply add more attack machines. This after all will end up completely crashing a website for periods of time. Malware can carry DDoS attack mechanisms; one of the better-known examples of this was MyDoom. Its DoS mechanism was triggered on a specific date and time. This type of DDoS involved hardcoding the target IP address prior to release of the malware and no further interaction was necessary to launch the attack. 


Q247. Which of the following allows a company to maintain access to encrypted resources when employee turnover is high? 

A. Recovery agent 

B. Certificate authority 

C. Trust model 

D. Key escrow 

Answer:

Explanation: 

If an employee leaves and we need access to data he has encrypted, we can use the key recovery agent to retrieve his decryption key. We can use this recovered key to access the data. A key recovery agent is an entity that has the ability to recover a key, key components, or plaintext messages as needed. As opposed to escrow, recovery agents are typically used to access information that is encrypted with older keys. 


Q248. An IT security manager is asked to provide the total risk to the business. Which of the following calculations would he security manager choose to determine total risk? 

A. (Threats X vulnerability X asset value) x controls gap 

B. (Threats X vulnerability X profit) x asset value 

C. Threats X vulnerability X control gap 

D. Threats X vulnerability X asset value 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Threats X vulnerability X asset value is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF). This is used to calculate a risk. 


Q249. Establishing a published chart of roles, responsibilities, and chain of command to be used during a disaster is an example of which of the following? 

A. Fault tolerance 

B. Succession planning 

C. Business continuity testing 

D. Recovery point objectives 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Succession planning outlines those internal to the organization that has the ability to step into positions when they open. By identifying key roles that cannot be left unfilled and associating internal employees who can step into these roles, you can groom those employees to make sure that they are up to speed when it comes time for them to fill those positions. 


Q250. A security administrator has concerns regarding employees saving data on company provided mobile devices. Which of the following would BEST address the administrator’s concerns? 

A. Install a mobile application that tracks read and write functions on the device. 

B. Create a company policy prohibiting the use of mobile devices for personal use. 

C. Enable GPS functionality to track the location of the mobile devices. 

D. Configure the devices so that removable media use is disabled. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Mobile devices can be plugged into computers where they appear as an additional disk in the same way as a USB drive. This is known as removable media. This would enable users to copy company data onto the mobile devices. By disabling removable media use, the users will not be able to copy data onto the mobile devices.