SY0-401 Exam
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2021 Mar SY0-401 practice exam
Q271. A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?
A. Peer to Peer
B. Mobile devices
C. Social networking
D. Personally owned devices
Answer: C
Explanation:
There many companies that allow full use of social media in the workplace, believing that the marketing opportunities it holds outweigh any loss in productivity. What they are unknowingly minimizing are the threats that exist. Rather than being all new threats, the social networking/media threats tend to fall in the categories of the same old tricks used elsewhere but in a new format. A tweet can be sent with a shortened URL so that it does not exceed the 140-character limit set by Twitter; unfortunately, the user has no idea what the shortened URL leads to. This makes training your employees regarding the risks social networking entails essential.
Q272. A system administrator has been instructed by the head of security to protect their data at-rest.
Which of the following would provide the strongest protection?
A. Prohibiting removable media
B. Incorporating a full-disk encryption system
C. Biometric controls on data center entry points
D. A host-based intrusion detection system
Answer: B
Explanation:
Full disk encryption can be used to encrypt an entire volume with 128-bit encryption. When the entire volume is encrypted, the data is not accessible to someone who might boot another operating system in an attempt to bypass the computer’s security. Full disk encryption is sometimes referred to as hard drive encryption. This would be best to protect data that is at rest.
Q273. Which of the following would a security administrator implement in order to identify change from the standard configuration on a server?
A. Penetration test
B. Code review
C. Baseline review
D. Design review
Answer: C
Explanation:
The standard configuration on a server is known as the baseline.
The IT baseline protection approach is a methodology to identify and implement computer security
measures in an organization. The aim is the achievement of an adequate and appropriate level of
security for IT systems. This is known as a baseline.
A baseline report compares the current status of network systems in terms of security updates,
performance or other metrics to a predefined set of standards (the baseline).
Q274. A network consists of various remote sites that connect back to two main locations. Pete, the security administrator, needs to block TELNET access into the network. Which of the following, by default, would be the BEST choice to accomplish this goal?
A. Block port 23 on the L2 switch at each remote site
B. Block port 23 on the network firewall
C. Block port 25 on the L2 switch at each remote site
D. Block port 25 on the network firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Telnet is a terminal-emulation network application that supports remote connectivity for executing commands and running applications but doesn’t support transfer of fi les. Telnet uses TCP port 23. Because it’s a clear text protocol and service, it should be avoided and replaced with SSH.
Q275. Data execution prevention is a feature in most operating systems intended to protect against which type of attack?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Header manipulation
D. SQL injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data Execution Prevention (DEP) is a security feature included in modern operating systems. It
marks areas of memory as either "executable" or "nonexecutable", and allows only data in an
"executable" area to be run by programs, services, device drivers, etc. It is known to be available
in Linux, OS X, Microsoft Windows, iOS and Android operating systems.
DEP protects against some program errors, and helps prevent certain malicious exploits,
especially attacks that store executable instructions in a data area via a buffer overflow.
A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary
data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite
amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent
buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally
through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on
data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger
specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for
example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer
overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the
framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
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Q276. Which of the following offers the LEAST amount of protection against data theft by USB drives?
A. DLP
B. Database encryption
C. TPM
D. Cloud computing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud computing refers to performing data processing and storage elsewhere, over a network connection, rather than locally. Because users have access to the data, it can easily be copied to a USB device.
Q277. Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, do to limit a wireless signal from penetrating the exterior walls?
A. Implement TKIP encryption
B. Consider antenna placement
C. Disable the SSID broadcast
D. Disable WPA
Answer: B
Explanation: Cinderblock walls, metal cabinets, and other barriers can reduce signal strength significantly. Therefore, antenna placement is critical.
Q278. Pete, a security administrator, is informed that people from the HR department should not have access to the accounting department’s server, and the accounting department should not have access to the HR department’s server. The network is separated by switches. Which of the following is designed to keep the HR department users from accessing the accounting department’s server and vice-versa?
A. ACLs
B. VLANs
C. DMZs
D. NATS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
Q279. Which of the following controls can be used to prevent the disclosure of sensitive information stored on a mobile device’s removable media in the event that the device is lost or stolen?
A. Hashing
B. Screen locks
C. Device password
D. Encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encryption is used to ensure the confidentiality of information.
Q280. Which of the following was based on a previous X.500 specification and allows either unencrypted authentication or encrypted authentication through the use of TLS?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS+
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol is an open, vendor-neutral, industry standard
application protocol for accessing and maintaining distributed directory information services over
an Internet Protocol (IP) network. Directory services play an important role in developing intranet
and Internet applications by allowing the sharing of information about users, systems, networks,
services, and applications throughout the network. As examples, directory services may provide
any organized set of records, often with a hierarchical structure, such as a corporate email
directory. Similarly, a telephone directory is a list of subscribers with an address and a phone
number.
A common usage of LDAP is to provide a "single sign on" where one password for a user is
shared between many services, such as applying a company login code to web pages (so that
staff log in only once to company computers, and then are automatically logged into the company
intranet).
LDAP is based on a simpler subset of the standards contained within the X.500 standard.
Because of this relationship, LDAP is sometimes called X.500-lite.
A client starts an LDAP session by connecting to an LDAP server, called a Directory System
Agent (DSA), by default on TCP and UDP port 389, or on port 636 for LDAPS. Global Catalog is
available by default on ports 3268, and 3269 for LDAPS. The client then sends an operation
request to the server, and the server sends responses in return.
The client may request the following operations:
StartTLS — use the LDAPv3 Transport Layer Security (TLS) extension for a secure connection