SY0-401 Exam
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2021 Mar SY0-401 free practice test
Q621. A recent vulnerability scan found that Telnet is enabled on all network devices. Which of the following protocols should be used instead of Telnet?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. SSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.
Q622. Which of the following tools will allow a technician to detect security-related TCP connection anomalies?
A. Logical token
B. Performance monitor
C. Public key infrastructure
D. Trusted platform module
Answer: B
Explanation:
Performance Monitor in a Windows system can monitor many different ‘counters’. For TCP network connections, you can monitor specific TCP related counters including the following: Connection Failures Connections Active Connections Established Connections Passive Connections Reset Segments Received/sec Segments Retransmitted/sec Segments Sent/sec Total Segments/sec
By monitoring the counters listed above, you will be able to detect security-related TCP connection anomalies.
Q623. Which of the following controls mitigates the risk of Matt, an attacker, gaining access to a company network by using a former employee’s credential?
A. Account expiration
B. Password complexity
C. Account lockout
D. Dual factor authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Account expiration is a secure feature to employ on user accounts for temporary workers, interns, or consultants. It automatically disables a user account or causes the account to expire at a specific time and on a specific day.
Q624. When confidentiality is the primary concern, and a secure channel for key exchange is not available, which of the following should be used for transmitting company documents?
A. Digital Signature
B. Symmetric
C. Asymmetric
D. Hashing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q625. A system administrator is setting up a file transfer server. The goal is to encrypt the user authentication and the files the user is sending using only a user ID and a key pair. Which of the following methods would achieve this goal?
A. AES
B. IPSec
C. PGP
D. SSH
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Q626. A set of standardized system images with a pre-defined set of applications is used to build end-user workstations. The security administrator has scanned every workstation to create a current inventory of all applications that are installed on active workstations and is documenting which applications are out-of-date and could be exploited. The security administrator is determining the:
A. attack surface.
B. application hardening effectiveness.
C. application baseline.
D. OS hardening effectiveness.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q627. Ann, a software developer, has installed some code to reactivate her account one week after her account has been disabled. Which of the following is this an example of? (Select TWO).
A. Rootkit
B. Logic Bomb
C. Botnet
D. Backdoor
E. Spyware
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This is an example of both a logic bomb and a backdoor. The logic bomb is configured to ‘go off’ or activate one week after her account has been disabled. The reactivated account will provide a backdoor into the system. A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set
time are not normally regarded as logic bombs.
A backdoor in a computer system (or cryptosystem or algorithm) is a method of bypassing normal
authentication, securing unauthorized remote access to a computer, obtaining access to plaintext,
and so on, while attempting to remain undetected. The backdoor may take the form of an installed
program (e.g., Back Orifice) or may subvert the system through a rootkit.
A backdoor in a login system might take the form of a hard coded user and password combination
which gives access to the system.
Q628. Which of the following provides the LEAST availability?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 3
D. RAID 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
RAID, or redundant array of independent disks (RAID). RAID allows your existing servers to have more than one hard drive so that if the main hard drive fails, the system keeps functioning. RAID 0 is disk striping. It uses multiple drives and maps them together as a single physical drive. This is done primarily for performance, not for fault tolerance. If any drive in a RAID 0 array fails, the entire logical drive becomes unusable.
Q629. A company’s business model was changed to provide more web presence and now its ERM software is no longer able to support the security needs of the company. The current data center will continue to provide network and security services. Which of the following network elements would be used to support the new business model?
A. Software as a Service
B. DMZ
C. Remote access support
D. Infrastructure as a Service
Answer: A
Explanation:
Software as a Service (SaaS) allows for on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without having to install it locally. This will allow the data center to continue providing network and security services.
Q630. A new virtual server was created for the marketing department. The server was installed on an existing host machine. Users in the marketing department report that they are unable to connect to the server. Technicians verify that the server has an IP address in the same VLAN as the marketing department users. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the users are unable to connect to the server?
A. The new virtual server’s MAC address was not added to the ACL on the switch
B. The new virtual server’s MAC address triggered a port security violation on the switch
C. The new virtual server’s MAC address triggered an implicit deny in the switch
D. The new virtual server’s MAC address was not added to the firewall rules on the switch
Answer: A
Explanation:
Configuring the switch to allow only traffic from computers based upon their physical address is known as MAC filtering. The physical address is known as the MAC address. Every network adapter has a unique MAC address hardcoded into the adapter. You can configure the ports of a switch to allow connections from computers with specific MAC addresses only and block all other MAC addresses. In computer networking, MAC Filtering (or GUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. MAC addresses are uniquely assigned to each card, so using MAC filtering on a network permits and denies network access to specific devices through the use of blacklists and whitelists. While the restriction of network access through the use of lists is straightforward, an individual person is not identified by a MAC address, rather a device only, so an authorized person will need to have a whitelist entry for each device that he or she would use to access the network.