SY0-401 Exam
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Q571. A system administrator is using a packet sniffer to troubleshoot remote authentication. The administrator detects a device trying to communicate to TCP port 49. Which of the following authentication methods is MOST likely being attempted?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. LDAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
TACACS makes use of TCP port 49 by default.
Q572. After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A high-speed internet connection to a second data provider could be used to keep an up-to-date replicate of the main site. In case of problem on the first site, operation can quickly switch to the second site. This eliminates the single point of failure and allows the business to continue uninterrupted on the second site. Note: Recovery Time Objective The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum amount of time that a process or service is allowed to be down and the consequences still be considered acceptable. Beyond this time, the break in business continuity is considered to affect the business negatively. The RTO is agreed on during BIA creation.
Q573. Sara, an application developer, implemented error and exception handling alongside input validation. Which of the following does this help prevent?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Pop-up blockers
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Buffer overflow is an exploit at programming error, bugs and flaws. It occurs when an application is fed more input data than it is programmed to handle. This may cause the application to terminate or to write data beyond the end of the allocated space in memory. The termination of the application may cause the system to send the data with temporary access to privileged levels in the system, while overwriting can cause important data to be lost. Proper error and exception handling and input validation will help prevent Buffer overflow exploits.
Q574. A security administrator is tasked with calculating the total ALE on servers. In a two year period of time, a company has to replace five servers. Each server replacement has cost the company $4,000 with downtime costing $3,000. Which of the following is the ALE for the company?
A. $7,000
B. $10,000
C. $17,500
D. $35,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
SLE × ARO = ALE, where SLE is equal to asset value (AV) times exposure factor (EF); and ARO is the annualized rate of occurrence. SLE =($4000 + $3000) x 5 = $35000 ARO = 2 years Thus per year it would be 50% = 0,5 The ALE is thus $35000 x 0.5 = $17500
Q575. An administrator needs to submit a new CSR to a CA. Which of the following is a valid FIRST step?
A. Generate a new private key based on AES.
B. Generate a new public key based on RSA.
C. Generate a new public key based on AES.
D. Generate a new private key based on RSA.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before creating a CSR, the applicant first generates a key pair, keeping the private key secret. The private key is needed to produce, but it is not part of, the CSR. The private key is an RSA key. The private encryption key that will be used to protect sensitive information. Note: A CSR or Certificate Signing request is a block of encrypted text that is generated on the server that the certificate will be used on. It contains information that will be included in your certificate such as your organization name, common name (domain name), locality, and country. It also contains the public key that will be included in your certificate. A private key is usually created at the same time that you create the CSR.
Far out SY0-401 exam guide:
Q576. TION NO: 174
Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?
A. Placement of antenna
B. Disabling the SSID
C. Implementing WPA2
D. Enabling the MAC filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.
Q577. Which of the following BEST describes a SQL Injection attack?
A. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server pass information to a back-end database from which it can compromise the stored information.
B. The attacker attempts to have the receiving server run a payload using programming commonly found on web servers.
C. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash and bring the server down to cause an outage.
D. The attacker overwhelms a system or application, causing it to crash, and then redirects the memory address to read from a location holding the payload.
Answer: A
Explanation:
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q578. A computer is found to be infected with malware and a technician re-installs the operating system. The computer remains infected with malware. This is an example of:
A. a rootkit.
B. a MBR infection.
C. an exploit kit.
D. Spyware.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q579. Which of the following protocols uses an asymmetric key to open a session and then establishes a symmetric key for the remainder of the session?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. TFTP
D. TLS
Answer: D
Explanation:
SSL establishes a session using asymmetric encryption and maintains the session using symmetric encryption.
Q580. Matt, a security administrator, wants to configure all the switches and routers in the network in order to securely monitor their status. Which of the following protocols would he need to configure on each device?
A. SMTP
B. SNMPv3
C. IPSec
D. SNMP
Answer: B
Explanation: Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.