SY0-401 Exam
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2021 Mar SY0-401 free practice exam
Q11. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring?
A. Smurf Attack
B. Man in the middle
C. Backdoor
D. Replay
E. Spear Phishing
F. Xmas Attack
G. Blue Jacking
H. Ping of Death
Answer: A
Explanation:
The exhibit shows that all the computers on the network are being ‘pinged’. This indicates that the ping request was sent to the network broadcast address. We can also see that all the replies were received by one (probably with a spoofed address) host on the network. This is typical of a smurf attack.
A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.
Q12. During a recent investigation, an auditor discovered that an engineer’s compromised workstation was being used to connect to SCADA systems while the engineer was not logged in. The engineer is responsible for administering the SCADA systems and cannot be blocked from connecting to them. The SCADA systems cannot be modified without vendor approval which requires months of testing.
Which of the following is MOST likely to protect the SCADA systems from misuse?
A. Update anti-virus definitions on SCADA systems
B. Audit accounts on the SCADA systems
C. Install a firewall on the SCADA network
D. Deploy NIPS at the edge of the SCADA network
Answer: D
Explanation:
A supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system is an industrial control system (ICS) that is used to control infrastructure processes, facility-based processes, or industrial processes. A network-based IPS (NIPS) is an intrusion detection and prevention system that scans network traffic in real time against a database of attack signatures. It is useful for detecting and responding to network-based attacks originating from outside the organization.
Q13. A security analyst performs the following activities: monitors security logs, installs surveillance cameras and analyzes trend reports. Which of the following job responsibilities is the analyst performing? (Select TWO).
A. Detect security incidents
B. Reduce attack surface of systems
C. Implement monitoring controls
D. Hardening network devices
E. Prevent unauthorized access
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Q14. When creating a public / private key pair, for which of the following ciphers would a user need to specify the key strength?
A. SHA
B. AES
C. DES
D. RSA
Answer: D
Explanation:
RSA (an asymmetric algorithm) uses keys of a minimum length of 2048 bits.
Q15. The manager has a need to secure physical documents every night, since the company began enforcing the clean desk policy. The BEST solution would include: (Select TWO).
A. Fire- or water-proof safe.
B. Department door locks.
C. Proximity card.
D. 24-hour security guard.
E. Locking cabinets and drawers.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Using a safe and locking cabinets to protect backup media, documentation, and any other physical artifacts that could do harm if they fell into the wrong hands would form part of keeping employees desks clean as in a clean desk policy.
Up to the minute SY0-401 sample question:
Q16. The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Incident response procedures involves: Preparation; Incident identification; Escalation and notification; Mitigation steps; Lessons learned; Reporting; Recover/reconstitution procedures; First responder; Incident isolation (Quarantine; Device removal); Data breach; Damage and loss control. Developing and updating all internal operating and standard operating procedures documentation to handle future incidents is preparation.
Q17. Which of the following documents outlines the technical and security requirements of an agreement between organizations?
A. BPA
B. RFQ
C. ISA
D. RFC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q18. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent Cross-Site Request Forgery (XSRF) attacks?
A. Check the referrer field in the HTTP header
B. Disable Flash content
C. Use only cookies for authentication
D. Use only HTTPS URLs
Answer: A
Explanation:
XSRF or cross-site request forgery applies to web applications and is an attack that exploits the web application’s trust of a user who known or is supposed to have been authenticated. This is accomplished by changing values in the HTTP header and even in the user’s cookie to falsify access. It can be prevented by embedding additional authentication data into requests that allows the web application to detect requests from unauthorized locations. Examples are synchronizer token patterns, cookie-to-header tokens, and checking the HTTP Referrer header and the HTTP Origin header.
Q19. A security administrator has installed a new KDC for the corporate environment. Which of the following authentication protocols is the security administrator planning to implement across the organization?
A. LDAP
B. RADIUS
C. Kerberos
D. XTACACS
Answer: C
Explanation:
The fundamental component of a Kerberos solution is the key distribution centre (KDC), which is responsible for verifying the identity of principles and granting and controlling access within a network environment through the use of secure cryptographic keys and tickets.
Q20. During a server audit, a security administrator does not notice abnormal activity. However, a network security analyst notices connections to unauthorized ports from outside the corporate network. Using specialized tools, the network security analyst also notices hidden processes running. Which of the following has MOST likely been installed on the server?
A. SPIM
B. Backdoor
C. Logic bomb
D. Rootkit
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of tools (programs) that enable administrator-level access to a computer or computer network. Typically, a cracker installs a rootkit on a computer after first obtaining user-level access, either by exploiting a known vulnerability or cracking a password. Once the rootkit is installed, it allows the attacker to mask intrusion and gain root or privileged access to the computer and, possibly, other machines on the network. A rootkit may consist of spyware and other programs that: monitor traffic and keystrokes; create a "backdoor" into the system for the hacker's use; alter log files; attack other machines on the network; and alter existing system tools to escape detection. The presence of a rootkit on a network was first documented in the early 1990s. At that time, Sun and Linux operating systems were the primary targets for a hacker looking to install a rootkit. Today, rootkits are available for a number of operating systems, including Windows, and are increasingly difficult to detect on any network.