SY0-401 Exam
Latest SY0-401 rapidshare Guide
Examcollection delivers good quality CompTIA SY0-401 Test Dumps. Oahu is the very best as well as newest CompTIA Perform Checks. Additionally, were always upgrading our own Examcollection SY0-401 Quiz. These SY0-401 Quiz Options updates are given free of cost to Examcollection prospects. When youve got just about any dilemma pertaining to Examcollection SY0-401 Dumps, dont hesitate to email us whenever.
2021 Apr SY0-401 book
Q81. Which of the following is described as an attack against an application using a malicious file?
A. Client side attack
B. Spam
C. Impersonation attack
D. Phishing attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this question, a malicious file is used to attack an application. If the application is running on a
client computer, this would be a client side attack. Attacking a service or application on a server
would be a server side attack.
Client-side attacks target vulnerabilities in client applications interacting with a malicious data. The
difference is the client is the one initiating the bad connection.
Client-side attacks are becoming more popular. This is because server side attacks are not as
easy as they once were according to apache.org.
Attackers are finding success going after weaknesses in desktop applications such as browsers,
media players, common office applications and e-mail clients.
To defend against client-side attacks keep-up the most current application patch levels, keep
antivirus software updated and keep authorized software to a minimum.
Q82. Matt, a security analyst, needs to select an asymmetric encryption method that allows for the same level of encryption strength with a lower key length than is typically necessary. Which of the following encryption methods offers this capability?
A. Twofish
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. ECC
D. RSA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) is an approach to public-key cryptography based on the algebraic structure of elliptic curves over finite fields. One of the main benefits in comparison with non-ECC cryptography (with plain Galois fields as a basis) is the same level of security provided by keys of smaller size.
Q83. A network inventory discovery application requires non-privileged access to all hosts on a network for inventory of installed applications. A service account is created by the network inventory discovery application for accessing all hosts. Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for granting the account non-privileged access to the hosts?
A. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the users group on the hosts
B. Add the account to the Domain Administrator group
C. Add the account to the Users group on the hosts
D. Implement Group Policy to add the account to the Power Users group on the hosts.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Group Policy is an infrastructure that allows you to implement specific configurations for users and computers. Group Policy settings are contained in Group Policy objects (GPOs), which are linked to the following Active Directory directory service containers: sites, domains, or organizational units (OUs). This means that if the GPO is linked to the domain, all Users groups in the domain will include the service account.
Q84. Which of the following would MOST likely involve GPS?
A. Wardriving
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Replay attack
D. WPS attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q85. Users have been reporting that their wireless access point is not functioning. They state that it allows slow connections to the internet, but does not provide access to the internal network. The user provides the SSID and the technician logs into the company’s access point and finds no issues. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Change the access point from WPA2 to WEP to determine if the encryption is too strong
B. Clear all access logs from the AP to provide an up-to-date access list of connected users
C. Check the MAC address of the AP to which the users are connecting to determine if it is an imposter
D. Reconfigure the access point so that it is blocking all inbound and outbound traffic as a troubleshooting gap
Answer: C
Explanation:
The users may be connecting to a rogue access point. The rogue access point could be hosting a wireless network that has the same SSID as the corporate wireless network. The only way to tell for sure if the access point the users are connecting to is the correct one is to check the MAC address. Every network card has a unique 48-bit address assigned. A media access control address (MAC address) is a unique identifier assigned to network interfaces for communications on the physical network segment. MAC addresses are used as a network address for most IEEE 802 network technologies, including Ethernet and WiFi. Logically, MAC addresses are used in the media access control protocol sublayer of the OSI reference model. MAC addresses are most often assigned by the manufacturer of a network interface controller (NIC) and are stored in its hardware, such as the card's read-only memory or some other firmware mechanism. If assigned by the manufacturer, a MAC address usually encodes the manufacturer's registered identification number and may be referred to as the burned-in address (BIA). It may also be known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. This can be contrasted to a programmed address, where the host device issues commands to the NIC to use an arbitrary address. A network node may have multiple NICs and each NIC must have a unique MAC address. MAC addresses are formed according to the rules of one of three numbering name spaces managed by the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE): MAC-48, EUI-48, and EUI-64.
Down to date SY0-401 test engine:
Q86. A security technician at a small business is worried about the Layer 2 switches in the network suffering from a DoS style attack caused by staff incorrectly cabling network connections between switches.
Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk if implemented on the switches?
A. Spanning tree
B. Flood guards
C. Access control lists
D. Syn flood
Answer: A
Explanation:
Spanning Tree is designed to eliminate network ‘loops’ from incorrect cabling between switches. Imagine two switches named switch 1 and switch 2 with two network cables connecting the switches. This would cause a network loop. A network loop between two switches can cause a ‘broadcast storm’ where a broadcast packet is sent out of all ports on switch 1 which includes two links to switch 2. The broadcast packet is then sent out of all ports on switch 2 which includes links back to switch 1. The broadcast packet will be sent out of all ports on switch 1 again which includes two links to switch 2 and so on thus flooding the network with broadcast traffic. The Spanning-Tree Protocol (STP) was created to overcome the problems of transparent bridging in redundant networks. The purpose of STP is to avoid and eliminate loops in the network by negotiating a loop-free path through a root bridge. This is done by determining where there are loops in the network and blocking links that are redundant. Spanning-Tree Protocol executes an algorithm called the Spanning-Tree Algorithm (STA). In order to find redundant links, STA will choose a reference point called a Root Bridge, and then determines all the available paths to that reference point. If it finds a redundant path, it chooses for the best path to forward and for all other redundant paths to block. This effectively severs the redundant links within the network. All switches participating in STP gather information on other switches in the network through an exchange of data messages. These messages are referred to as Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). The exchange of BPDUs in a switched environment will result in the election of a root switch for the stable spanning-tree network topology, election of designated switch for every switched segment, and the removal of loops in the switched network by placing redundant switch ports in a backup state.
Q87. Pete, a network administrator, is implementing IPv6 in the DMZ. Which of the following protocols must he allow through the firewall to ensure the web servers can be reached via IPv6 from an IPv6 enabled Internet host?
A. TCP port 443 and IP protocol 46
B. TCP port 80 and TCP port 443
C. TCP port 80 and ICMP
D. TCP port 443 and SNMP
Answer: B
Explanation:
HTTP and HTTPS, which uses TCP port 80 and TCP port 443 respectively, is necessary for Communicating with Web servers. It should therefore be allowed through the firewall.
Q88. On a train, an individual is watching a proprietary video on Joe's laptop without his knowledge. Which of the following does this describe?
A. Tailgating
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Interference
D. Illegal downloading
Answer: B
Explanation:
Q89. DRAG DROP
You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan.
Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.
Answer:
Explanation:
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex,
Indianapolis, 2014, p 369
Q90. An internal auditor is concerned with privilege creep that is associated with transfers inside the company. Which mitigation measure would detect and correct this?
A. User rights reviews
B. Least privilege and job rotation
C. Change management
D. Change Control
Answer: A
Explanation:
A privilege audit is used to determine that all groups, users, and other accounts have the appropriate privileges assigned according to the policies of an organization. This means that a user rights review will reveal whether user accounts have been assigned according to their ‘new’ job descriptions , or if there are privilege creep culprits after transfers has occurred.