SY0-401 Exam
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2021 Apr SY0-401 practice test
Q31. The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) receives a suspicious voice mail warning of credit card fraud. No one else received the voice mail. Which of the following BEST describes this attack?
A. Whaling
B. Vishing
C. Spear phishing
D. Impersonation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q32. Which of the following is a way to implement a technical control to mitigate data loss in case of a mobile device theft?
A. Disk encryption
B. Encryption policy
C. Solid state drive
D. Mobile device policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Disk and device encryption encrypts the data on the device. This feature ensures that the data on the device cannot be accessed in a useable form should the device be stolen.
Q33. A security administrator examines a network session to a compromised database server with a packet analyzer. Within the session there is a repeated series of the hex character 90 (x90).
Which of the following attack types has occurred?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Cross-site scripting
C. XML injection
D. SQL injection
Answer: A
Explanation: Explanation The hex character 90 (x90) means NOP or No Op or No Operation. In a buffer overflow attack, the buffer can be filled and overflowed with No Op commands. A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary data storage area) than it was intended to hold. Since buffers are created to contain a finite amount of data, the extra information - which has to go somewhere - can overflow into adjacent buffers, corrupting or overwriting the valid data held in them. Although it may occur accidentally through programming error, buffer overflow is an increasingly common type of security attack on data integrity. In buffer overflow attacks, the extra data may contain codes designed to trigger specific actions, in effect sending new instructions to the attacked computer that could, for example, damage the user's files, change data, or disclose confidential information. Buffer overflow attacks are said to have arisen because the C programming language supplied the framework, and poor programming practices supplied the vulnerability.
Q34. Which of the following protocols provides for mutual authentication of the client and server?
A. Two-factor authentication
B. Radius
C. Secure LDAP
D. Biometrics
Answer: C
Explanation:
C: The LDAP directory service is based on a client-server model. The function of LDAP is to enable access to an existing directory. Because it is a client-server model it makes provision for mutual authentication between the two parties.
Q35. Environmental control measures include which of the following?
A. Access list
B. Lighting
C. Motion detection
D. EMI shielding
Answer: D
Explanation:
Environmental controls include HVAC, Fire Suppression, EMI Shielding, Hot and Cold Aisles, Environmental monitoring as well as Temperature and Humidity controls.
Up to date SY0-401 exam topics:
Q36. A security administrator has deployed all laptops with Self Encrypting Drives (SED) and enforces key encryption. Which of the following represents the greatest threat to maintaining data confidentiality with these devices?
A. Full data access can be obtained by connecting the drive to a SATA or USB adapter bypassing the SED hardware.
B. A malicious employee can gain the SED encryption keys through software extraction allowing access to other laptops.
C. If the laptop does not use a Secure Boot BIOS, the SED hardware is not enabled allowing full data access.
D. Laptops that are placed in a sleep mode allow full data access when powered back on.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q37. An attacker used an undocumented and unknown application exploit to gain access to a file server. Which of the following BEST describes this type of attack?
A. Integer overflow
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Zero-day
D. Session hijacking
E. XML injection
Answer: C
Explanation:
The vulnerability is undocumented and unknown. This is zero day vulnerability. A zero day vulnerability refers to a hole in software that is unknown to the vendor. This security hole is then exploited by hackers before the vendor becomes aware and hurries to fix it—this exploit is called a zero day attack. Uses of zero day attacks can include infiltrating malware, spyware or allowing unwanted access to user information. The term “zero day” refers to the unknown nature of the hole to those outside of the hackers, specifically, the developers. Once the vulnerability becomes known, a race begins for the developer, who must protect users.
Q38. When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q39. Which of the following provides dedicated hardware-based cryptographic functions to an operating system and its applications running on laptops and desktops?
A. TPM
B. HSM
C. CPU
D. FPU
Answer: A
Explanation:
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based encryption solution that is embedded in the system’s motherboard and is enabled or disable in BIOS. It helps with hash key generation and stores cryptographic keys, passwords, or certificates.
Q40. Which of the following security strategies allows a company to limit damage to internal systems and provides loss control?
A. Restoration and recovery strategies
B. Deterrent strategies
C. Containment strategies
D. Detection strategies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Containment strategies is used to limit damages, contain a loss so that it may be controlled, much like quarantine, and loss incident isolation.