Actualtests offers free demo for comptia security+ sy0 401 pdf exam. "CompTIA Security+ Certification", also known as comptia security+ sy0 401 exam, is a CompTIA Certification. This set of posts, Passing the CompTIA sy0 401 vce exam, will help you answer those questions. The sy0 401 braindump Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real CompTIA comptia security+ study guide sy0 401 exams and revised by experts!
Q21. A software development company wants to implement a digital rights management solution to protect its intellectual property. Which of the following should the company implement to enforce software digital rights?
A. Transport encryption
B. IPsec
C. Non-repudiation
D. Public key infrastructure
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI) is intended to offer a means of providing security to messages and transactions on a grand scale. The need for universal systems to support e-commerce, secure transactions, and information privacy is one aspect of the issues being addressed with PKI. A PKI can be used to protect software.
Q22. DRAG DROP
You have been tasked with designing a security plan for your company. Drag and drop the appropriate security controls on the floor plan.
Instructions: All objects must be used and all place holders must be filled. Order does not matter. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit.
Answer:
Explanation:
References:
Dulaney, Emmett and Chuck Eastton, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex,
Indianapolis, 2014, p 369
Q23. Separation of duties is often implemented between developers and administrators in order to separate which of the following?
A. More experienced employees from less experienced employees
B. Changes to program code and the ability to deploy to production
C. Upper level management users from standard development employees
D. The network access layer from the application access layer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Separation of duties means that there is differentiation between users, employees and duties per se which form part of best practices.
Q24. A company recently experienced data loss when a server crashed due to a midday power outage.
Which of the following should be used to prevent this from occurring again?
A. Recovery procedures
B. EMI shielding
C. Environmental monitoring
D. Redundancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
Redundancy refers to systems that either are duplicated or fail over to other systems in the event of a malfunction (in this case a power outage). Failover refers to the process of reconstructing a system or switching over to other systems when a failure is detected. In the case of a server, the server switches to a redundant server when a fault is detected. This strategy allows service to continue uninterrupted until the primary server can be restored.
Q25. Which of the following is an effective way to ensure the BEST temperature for all equipment within a datacenter?
A. Fire suppression
B. Raised floor implementation
C. EMI shielding
D. Hot or cool aisle containment
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are often multiple rows of servers located in racks in server rooms. The rows of servers are known as aisles, and they can be cooled as hot aisles and cold aisles. With a hot aisle, hot air outlets are used to cool the equipment, whereas with cold aisles, cold air intake is used to cool the equipment. Combining the two, you have cold air intake from below the aisle and hot air outtake above it, providing constant circulation. This is a more effective way of controlling temperature to safeguard your equipment in a data center.
Q26. Highly sensitive data is stored in a database and is accessed by an application on a DMZ server. The disk drives on all servers are fully encrypted. Communication between the application server and end-users is also encrypted. Network ACLs prevent any connections to the database server except from the application server. Which of the following can still result in exposure of the sensitive data in the database server?
A. SQL Injection
B. Theft of the physical database server
C. Cookies
D. Cross-site scripting
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question discusses a very secure environment with disk and transport level encryption and access control lists restricting access. SQL data in a database is accessed by SQL queries from an application on the application server. The data can still be compromised by a SQL injection attack. SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must exploit a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Q27. A security administrator would like to ensure that system administrators are not using the same password for both their privileged and non-privileged accounts. Which of the following security controls BEST accomplishes this goal?
A. Require different account passwords through a policy
B. Require shorter password expiration for non-privileged accounts
C. Require shorter password expiration for privileged accounts
D. Require a greater password length for privileged accounts
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q28. A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of
192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-Site Request Forgery—also known as XSRF, session riding, and one-click attack—involves unauthorized commands coming from a trusted user to the website. This is often done without the user’s knowledge, and it employs some type of social networking to pull it off. For example, assume that Evan and Spencer are chatting through Facebook. Spencer sends Evan a link to what he purports is a funny video that will crack him up. Evan clicks the link, but it actually brings up Evan’s bank account information in another browser tab, takes a screenshot of it, closes the tab, and sends the information to Spencer. The reason the attack is possible is because Evan is a trusted user with his own bank. In order for it to work, Evan would need to have recently accessed that bank’s website and have a cookie that had yet to expire. The best protection against cross-site scripting is to disable the running of scripts (and browser profi les).
Q29. Matt, a systems security engineer, is determining which credential-type authentication to use within a planned 802.1x deployment. He is looking for a method that does not require a client certificate, has a server side certificate, and uses TLS tunnels for encryption. Which credential type authentication method BEST fits these requirements?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP-CHAP
D. PEAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D
Explanation:
PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards. Only servers running Network Policy Server (NPS) or PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 are required to have a certificate.
Q30. To ensure proper evidence collection, which of the following steps should be performed FIRST?
A. Take hashes from the live system
B. Review logs
C. Capture the system image
D. Copy all compromised files
Answer: C
Explanation:
Capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it. This is essential since the collection of evidence process may result in some mishandling and changing the exploited state.