NEW QUESTION 1

A network engineer is troubleshooting wireless network connectivity issues that were reported by users The issues are occurring only in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot. Users are intermittently experiencing slow speeds when accessing websites and are unable to connect to network drives. The issues appear to increase when laptop users return to their desks after using their devices in other areas of the building There have also been reports of users being required to enter their credentials on web pages in order to gain access to them Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

• A. An external access point is engaging in an evil-Twin attack
• B. The signal on the WAP needs to be increased in that section of the building
• C. The certificates have expired on the devices and need to be reinstalled
• D. The users in that section of the building are on a VLAN that is being blocked by the firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
An evil-Twin attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. It is the most likely cause of the issue that users are experiencing slow speeds, unable to connect to network drives, and required to enter their credentials on web pages when working in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot, where an external access point could be placed nearby.

NEW QUESTION 2

An organization recently acquired an ISO 27001 certification. Which of the following would MOST likely be considered a benefit of this certification?

• A. It allows for the sharing of digital forensics data across organizations
• B. It provides insurance in case of a data breach
• C. It provides complimentary training and certification resources to IT security staff.
• D. It certifies the organization can work with foreign entities that require a security clearance
• E. It assures customers that the organization meets security standards

Answer: E

Explanation:
ISO 27001 is an international standard that outlines the requirements for an Information Security Management System (ISMS). It provides a framework for managing and protecting sensitive information using risk management processes. Acquiring an ISO 27001 certification assures customers that the organization meets security standards and follows best practices for information security management. It helps to build customer trust and confidence in the organization's ability to protect their sensitive information. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and Vulnerabilities, 1.2 Given a scenario, analyze indicators of compromise and determine the type of malware, p. 7

NEW QUESTION 3

A company is switching to a remote work model for all employees. All company and employee resources will be in the cloud. Employees must use their personal computers to access the cloud computing environment. The company will manage the operating system. Which of the following deployment models is the company implementing?

• A. CYOD
• B. MDM
• C. COPE
• D. VDI

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to Professor Messer’s video1, VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and it is a deploy model where employees use their personal computers to access a virtual machine that runs the company’s operating system and applications.
In the scenario described, the company is implementing a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) deployment model [1]. This allows employees to access the cloud computing environment using their personal computers, while the company manages the operating system. The VDI model is suitable for remote work scenarios because it provides secure and centralized desktop management, while allowing employees to access desktops from any device.

NEW QUESTION 4

An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security pos-ture, which Of following will the blue team do after detecting an IOC?

• A. Reimage the impacted workstations.
• B. Activate runbooks for incident response.
• C. Conduct forensics on the compromised system,
• D. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information

Answer: B

Explanation:
A runbook is a set of predefined procedures and steps that guide an incident response team through the process of handling a security incident. It can help the blue team respond quickly and effectively to an indicator of compromise (IOC) by following the best practices and predefined actions for containment, eradication, recovery and lessons learned.

NEW QUESTION 5

A security analyst is taking part in an evaluation process that analyzes and categorizes threat actors Of real-world events in order to improve the incident response team's process. Which Of the following is the analyst most likely participating in?

• A. MITRE ATT&CK
• B. Walk-through
• C. Red team
• D. Purple team-I
• E. TAXI

Answer: A

Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base and framework that analyzes and categorizes threat actors and
real-world events based on their tactics, techniques and procedures. It can help improve the incident response team’s process by providing a common language and reference for identifying, understanding and mitigating threats

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following isa risk that is specifically associated with hesting applications iin the public cloud?

• A. Unsecured root accounts
• B. Zero day
• C. Shared tenancy
• D. Insider threat

Answer: C

Explanation:
When hosting applications in the public cloud, there is a risk of shared tenancy, meaning that multiple organizations are sharing the same infrastructure. This can potentially allow one tenant to access another tenant's data, creating a security risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following roles would MOST likely have direct access to the senior management team?

• A. Data custodian
• B. Data owner
• C. Data protection officer
• D. Data controller

Answer: C

Explanation:
A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.
A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Data custodian is a role that implements and maintains the technical controls and procedures for data security and integrity. A data custodian does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in operational tasks than strategic decisions.
B. Data owner is a role that determines the classification and usage of data within an organization. A data owner does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in business functions than data protection compliance.
D. Data controller is a role that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization. A data controller does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in data processing activities than data protection oversight.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:
“A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/data-protection-officer/

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following identifies the point in time when an organization will recover data in the event of an outage?

• A. SLA
• B. RPO
• C. MTBF
• D. ARO

Answer: B

Explanation:
Detailed
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is the maximum duration of time that an organization can tolerate data loss in the event of an outage. It identifies the point in time when data recovery must begin, and any data loss beyond that point is considered unacceptable.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-601 by Mike Chapple and David Seidl, Chapter-7: Incident Response and Recovery, Objective 7.2: Compare and contrast business continuity and disaster recovery concepts, pp. 349-350.

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration?

• A. IP schema
• B. Application baseline configuration
• C. Standard naming convention policy
• D. Wireless LAN and network perimeter diagram

Answer: C

Explanation:
A standard naming convention policy would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration. A standard naming convention policy is a document that defines the rules and formats for naming network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, or printers. A standard naming convention policy can help an organization achieve consistency, clarity, and efficiency in network management and administration.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Network_Virtualization/PathIsolationDesignGuide/P

NEW QUESTION 10

A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One of the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability to use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even through the data is still viewable from the user’s PCs. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

• A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts
• B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file
• C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.config instead of using the sshd.conf
• D. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSH stands for Secure Shell Protocol, which is a cryptographic network protocol that allows secure remote login and command execution on a network device12. SSH can encrypt both the authentication information and the data being exchanged between the client and the server2. SSH can be used to access and manage a NAS device remotely3.

NEW QUESTION 11

An engineer is using scripting to deploy a network in a cloud environment. Which the following describes this scenario?

• A. SDLC
• B. VLAN
• C. SDN
• D. SDV

Answer: C

Explanation:
SDN stands for software-defined networking, which is an approach to networking that uses software-based controllers or application programming interfaces (APIs) to communicate with underlying hardware infrastructure and direct traffic on a network. SDN decouples the network control plane from the data plane, enabling centralized management and programmability of network resources. SDN can help an engineer use scripting to deploy a network in a cloud environment by allowing them to define and automate network policies, configurations, and services through software commands.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/software-defined-networking/overview.html

NEW QUESTION 12

A security administrator installed a new web server. The administrator did this to increase the capacity for an application due to resource exhaustion on another server. Which of the following algorithms should the administrator use to split the number of the connections on each server in half?

• A. Weighted response
• B. Round-robin
• C. Least connection
• D. Weighted least connection

Answer: B

Explanation:
Round-robin is a type of load balancing algorithm that distributes traffic to a list of servers in rotation. It is a static algorithm that does not take into account the state of the system for the distribution of tasks. It assumes that all servers have equal capacity and can handle an equal amount of traffic.

NEW QUESTION 13

During an incident a company CIRT determine it is necessary to observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes?

• A. Physical move the PC to a separate internet pint of presence
• B. Create and apply micro segmentation rules.
• C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DM Z segment.
• D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain

Answer: C

Explanation:
To observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes, the best technique to use is to emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment. This is a secure environment that is isolated from the rest of the network and can be heavily monitored to detect any suspicious activity. By emulating the malware in this environment, the activity can be observed without the risk of lateral spread or detection by the adversary. References:
https://www.sans.org/blog/incident-response-fundamentals-why-is-the-dmz-so-important/

NEW QUESTION 14

The application development team is in the final stages of developing a new healthcare application. The team has requested copies of current PHI records to perform the final testing.
Which of the following would be the best way to safeguard this information without impeding the testing process?

• A. Implementing a content filter
• B. Anonymizing the data
• C. Deploying DLP tools
• D. Installing a FIM on the application server

Answer: B

Explanation:
Anonymizing the data is the process of removing personally identifiable information (PII) from data sets, so that the people whom the data describe remain anonymous12. Anonymizing the data can safeguard the PHI records without impeding the testing process, because it can protect the privacy of the patients while
preserving the data integrity and statistical accuracy for the application development team12. Anonymizing the data can be done by using techniques such as data masking, pseudonymization, generalization, data swapping, or data perturbation12.
Implementing a content filter is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that blocks or allows access to certain types of content based on predefined rules or policies3. A content filter does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or leakage of PHI records.
Deploying DLP tools is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that monitors and prevents data exfiltration or transfer to unauthorized destinations or users. DLP tools do not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and they may not be sufficient to protect PHI records from internal misuse or negligence.
Installing a FIM on the application server is not the best way to safeguard the information, because it is a technique that detects and alerts changes to files or directories on a system. FIM does not remove or encrypt PII from data sets, and it may not prevent unauthorized access or modification of PHI records.

NEW QUESTION 15

A company wants to build a new website to sell products online. The website wd I host a storefront application that allow visitors to add products to a shopping cart and pay for products using a credit card. which Of the following protocols •would be most secure to implement?

• A. SSL
• B. SFTP
• C. SNMP
• D. TLS

Answer: D

Explanation:
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over the internet. It can protect the data transmitted between the website and the visitors from eavesdropping, tampering, etc. It is the most secure protocol to implement for a website that sells products online using a credit card.

NEW QUESTION 16

A new security engineer has started hardening systems. One o( the hardening techniques the engineer is using involves disabling remote logins to the NAS. Users are now reporting the inability lo use SCP to transfer files to the NAS, even though the data is still viewable from the users' PCs. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

• A. TFTP was disabled on the local hosts.
• B. SSH was turned off instead of modifying the configuration file.
• C. Remote login was disabled in the networkd.conf instead of using the ssh
• D. conf.
• E. Network services are no longer running on the NAS

Answer: B

Explanation:
SSH is used to securely transfer files to the remote server and is required for SCP to work. Disabling SSH will prevent users from being able to use SCP to transfer files to the server. To enable SSH, the security engineer should modify the SSH configuration file (sshd.conf) and make sure that SSH is enabled. For more information on hardening systems and the security techniques that can be used, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

NEW QUESTION 17

A security analyst is assisting a team of developers with best practices for coding. The security analyst would like to defend against the use of SQL injection attacks. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend first?

• A. Tokenization
• B. Input validation
• C. Code signing
• D. Secure cookies

Answer: B

Explanation:
Input validation is a technique that involves checking the user input for any malicious or unexpected characters or commands that could be used to perform SQL injection attacks. Input validation can be done by using allow-lists or deny-lists to filter out the input based on predefined criteria. Input validation can prevent SQL injection attacks by ensuring that only valid and expected input is passed to the database queries.

NEW QUESTION 18

During a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) convention to discuss security awareness, the attendees are provided with a network connection to use as a resource. As the convention progresses, one of the attendees starts to notice delays in the connection, and the HIIPS site requests are reverting to HTTP Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

• A. Birthday collision on the certificate key
• B. DNS hijacking to reroute traffic
• C. Brute force to the access point
• D. ASSLILS downgrade

Answer: B

Explanation:
The attendee is experiencing delays in the connection, and the HIIPS site requests are reverting to HTTP, indicating that the DNS resolution is redirecting the connection to another server. DNS hijacking is a technique that involves redirecting a user’s requests for a domain name to a different IP address. Attackers use DNS hijacking to redirect users to malicious websites and steal sensitive information, such as login credentials and credit card details.
Reference: https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-hijacking/

NEW QUESTION 19

A systems administrator is required to enforce MFA for corporate email account access, relying on the possession factor. Which of the following authentication methods should the systems administrator choose? (Select two).

• A. passphrase
• B. Time-based one-time password
• C. Facial recognition
• D. Retina scan
• E. Hardware token
• F. Fingerprints

Answer: BE

Explanation:
Time-based one-time password (TOTP) and hardware token are authentication methods that rely on the possession factor, which means that the user must have a specific device or object in their possession to authenticate. A TOTP is a password that is valid for a short period of time and is generated by an app or a device that the user has. A hardware token is a physical device that displays a code or a password that the user can enter to authenticate. A passphrase (Option A) is a knowledge factor, while facial recognition (Option C), retina scan (Option D), and fingerprints (Option F) are all inherence factors.
https://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/imprint_downloads/pearsonitcertification/bookreg/9780136798675/97801367 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yCJyPPvM-xg

NEW QUESTION 20
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