NEW QUESTION 1
When is it required to populate a value for Performance Satisfaction Plan In a Source Document Type?

• A. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Amount
• B. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Period
• C. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model is set to Quantity
• D. when the Satisfaction Measurement Model Is set to Percentage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
What does the creation of an allocation allow you to determine?

• A. the ability not to revise previously reported revenue for revision, corrections, and other changes
• B. the fair value of each performance obligation
• C. the maximum amount of revenue you can recognize soonest, postponing the minimum until later
• D. an allocation of the expected consideration over the performance obligations as if you had sold them separately

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
A furniture store Is running a promotion for a toaster with the purchase of a sofa or chair set. Data about the free toaster is not captured in any upstream application.
How should you handle this scenario In Revenue Management?

• A. Ignore the performance obligation for the toaster because it was free of cost to the customer.
• B. Define an Implied Performance Obligation Template to automatically add a performance obligation for the toaster.
• C. Create the performance obligation for the toaster manually.
• D. Define an adhoc rule in the Revenue Price Profile to include the toaste

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4
You have defined 3 Contract Identification rules: Rule A, Rule B, and Rule C. You then decide that Rule C needs to be the first rule executed when the "Identify Customer Contracts" process runs. Which attribute needs to be updated to achieve this objective?

• A. Freeze Period
• B. Default Classification
• C. Source Document Type
• D. Priority

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Given the Identify Customer Contracts Job set performs many different processes, which action Is NOT performed by this job set?

• A. allocates the SSP to various satisfaction events
• B. creates the accounting for the stages in the process
• C. allocates the SSP to various performance obligations
• D. recognizes revenue if any satisfaction events exist
• E. creates customer contracts and performance obligations

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
Given you can optionally use pricing bands to create standalone selling prices, which setting enables you to use pricing bands?

• A. when a pricing dimension structure is enabled for pricing bands
• B. when a source document type is enabled to use pricing bands
• C. when a pricing dimension structure Instance Is enabled for pricing bands
• D. when a value set segment label of Set Band is used

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
What is a Performance Obligation?

• A. a combination of customer type and product code
• B. a product code or SKU
• C. a promise to a customer on which either party has acted
• D. a promise to a customer

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
In order to have Revenue Management calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices, four steps must be completed.
Which two are NOT included in the four step process?

• A. Close the previous period.
• B. Review the calculated OSSP.
• C. Categorize standalone sales by performance obligation.
• D. Approve the OSSP by establishing it.
• E. Run the Calculate Observed Standalone Selling Prices program.
• F. Run Create Accountin

Answer: AF

NEW QUESTION 9
Revenue Management creates journal entries from a contract In order to recognize revenue properly. Which three event types are used by Revenue Management to create these journal entries?

• A. Performance Obligation Satisfied
• B. Performance Obligation Billed
• C. Initial Performance
• D. Revenue Recognized
• E. Standalone Selling Prices Allocated

Answer: ACD

NEW QUESTION 10
Which is a term under ASC 606 or IFRS 15?

• A. transaction price
• B. promise detail
• C. initial performance event
• D. requires complete

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
Given your organization's Interactions with one of Its customers:
* A consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2021.
* A Sales order Is booked on 14-Sep-2021.
* The Product is shipped on 15-Sep-2021. An invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2021. When do you accrue the contract liability?

• A. when the consultant is deployed to assist customer on 10-Sep-2021
• B. when the product is shipped on 15-Sep-2021
• C. when the sales order Is booked on 14-Sep-2021
• D. when an invoice is issued on 20-Sep-2021

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
Which three types of reference data critical to the Integration of a source system need to be synchronized between an external system and Revenue Management?

• A. Suppliers
• B. Business Units
• C. Customers
• D. Inventory items
• E. Receivables configurations
• F. Banks, branches and bank accounts

Answer: BCD

NEW QUESTION 13
The predefined Revenue Contract Account Activities Report provides data extracted from which two sources?

• A. Oracle Revenue Management Cloud
• B. Oracle Receivables
• C. Oracle General Ledger
• D. Oracle Subledger Accounting

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 14
Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

• A. If effective periods are not define
• B. Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
• C. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.
• D. Gaps between periods are not allowed.
• E. You cannot have overlapping periods.
• F. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.

Answer: CDE

NEW QUESTION 15
The contract Promised Details tabs includes Selling Amount, Allocated Amount, Revenue Recognized, and Bill…….

What is the difference between Selling Amount and Allocated Amount?

• A. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used for the Revenue Recognition amoun
• B. The Allocated Amount is based on the source document sales lines amounts and is ultimately used to tie back to your source document upload.
• C. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amounts and is used to tie back to your source document uploa
• D. The Allocated Amount is based on Standalone Selling Price and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.
• E. The Selling Amount is calculated based on Standalone Selling Prices and is used to tie back to your SSP upload or calculatio
• F. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed amount and is ultimately used for the Revenue Recognition amount.
• G. The Selling Amount is calculated based on the source document sales lines amount and is used for the Revenue Recognition amoun
• H. The Allocated Amount is based on the Billed Amount and Is used to tie back to your Billing source document upload.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
Given Oracle Revenue Management Cloud has predefined integration with Oracle E-Business Suite Financials, which two steps are NOT part of the steps to configure EBS for integration with Revenue Management Cloud?

• A. Apply appropriate patches to EBS.
• B. Run the Deploy System Options process.
• C. Set the Profile Option AR: Source System Value for Revenue Management.
• D. Map the EBS Chart of Accounts to the Cloud General Ledger.
• E. Set the System Options in EBS Receivables on the Revenue Management ta

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 17
Which three statements about Effective Periods are true?

• A. If effective periods are not defined, Revenue Management uses the General Ledger calendar.
• B. Effective Periods are used for standalone selling prices and for creating journal entries.
• C. Gaps between periods are not allowed.
• D. You cannot have overlapping periods.
• E. Effective Periods only define the rage where standalone selling prices of an item should be effective.

Answer: ACE

Explanation: 20. Which three tasks are associated with defining a Pricing Dimension Structure?
A. Define up to 30 segments and name them.
B. Define up to 20 segments and name them.
C. Analyze pricing policies across products and services.
D. Create multiple instances for a given Pricing Dimension Structure.
E. Include user friendly prompts for each segment.
F. Assign required segment labels to each segment.

NEW QUESTION 18
Given It Is critical to capture common link values In one or more attributes on the source document lines in order to build effective Performance Obligation Identification Rules, how many User Extensible Fields does Revenue Management provide to facilitate the capture of this data?

• A. 60 User Extensible Fields
• B. 10 User Extensible Fields
• C. 90 User Extensible Fields
• D. 50 User Extensible Fields

Answer: C