NEW QUESTION 1
Which technology facilitates a nondisruptive upgrade on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch?

• A. VSS
• B. ITD
• C. VDC
• D. vPC

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
If you are using NAT in your data center, which load balancing would you be likely to use within your GLBP configuration?

• A. none
• B. round-robin
• C. host dependent
• D. weighted

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Which SCSI terminology is used to describe source and destination nodes?

• A. hosts and targets
• B. initiators and targets
• C. HBA and disks
• D. initiators and disks
• E. HBA and targets

Answer: B

Explanation:
In computer data storage, a SCSI initiator is the endpoint that initiates a SCSI session, that is, sends a SCSI command. The initiator usually does not provide any Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs).
On the other hand, a SCSI target is the endpoint that does not initiate sessions, but instead waits for initiators' commands and provides required input/output data transfers. The target usually provides to the initiators one or more LUNs, because otherwise no read or write command would be possible. Reference:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCSI_initiator_and_target

NEW QUESTION 4
Which feature must be configured before you can implement a dynamic ARP inspection to validate an ARP packet?

• A. unicast RPF
• B. DHCP snooping
• C. IP Source Guard
• D. MACsec encryption

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
You configure STP on a switch that is attached to a Cisco Fabric Path domain and that has the vPC feature deployed. How do you configure STP on the switch in the Cisco FabricPath domain on VL AN 10?

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which two statements about the VRRP are true? (Choose two.)

• A. VRRP allows the traffic load to be shared through the use of multiple VRRP groups.
• B. When the VRRP is configured to track a Layer 2 interface, the VRRP priority instantly refilects the state of the Layer 2 interface.
• C. The BFD for the VRRP can be configured only between two Cisco Nexus switches
• D. vPC can forward traffic through both VRRP devices.
• E. The VRRP can be configured on the management interfac

Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.

System A must be able to use VXLAN peer discovery to send a message to System B to receive a response. Drag and drop the peer discovery steps from the left into the correct order on the right.

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the grace period in a graceful restart situation?

• A. how long the supervisor waits for NSF replies
• B. how often graceful restart messages are sent after a switchover
• C. how long NSF-aware neighbors should wait after a graceful restart has started before tearing down adjacencies
• D. how long the NSF-capable switches should wait after detecting that a graceful restart has started, before verifying that adjacencies are still valid

Answer: C

Explanation:
Graceful restart (GR) refers to the capability of the control plane to delay advertising the absence of a peer (going through control-plane switchover) for a "grace period," and thus help minimize disruption during that time (assuming the standby control plane comes up). GR is based on extensions per routing protocol, which are interoperable across vendors. The downside of the grace period is huge when the peer completely fails and never comes up, because that slows down the overall network convergence, which brings us to the final concept: nonstop routing (NSR).
NSR is an internal (vendor-specific) mechanism to extend the awareness of routing to the standby routing plane so that in case of failover, the newly active routing plane can take charge of the already established sessions.
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1395746&seqNum=2

NEW QUESTION 9
Which option accurately describes the implementation of Fibre Channel domain IDs?

• A. Are assigned on a peer-switch basis
• B. Are assigned on a per-line card basis
• C. Must be the dame on all on the Fabre Channel switch in the fabric
• D. Must be unique on all the Fibre Channel switches in the fabric

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the LISP devices from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

• A. Mastered
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
ITR = receives packets from site-facing interfaces ETR = receives packets from core-facing interfaces
PITR = provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by advertising coarse-aggregate prefixes for the LISP EID namespace into the Internet DFZ (RLOC namespace) and forwarding this non-LISP traffic to LISP sites
PETR = allows IPv6 LISP sites without native IPv6 RLOC connectivity to reach LISP sites that only have IPv6 RLOC connectivity

NEW QUESTION 11
Which two advantages does FabricPath have over Spanning Tree in implementing a loop-free network topology design? (Choose two.)

• A. Blocked links can be brought in to service if active links fail.
• B. Convergence times are faster.
• C. Multipath forwarding is supported for unicast and multicast Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic.
• D. Unknown unicast addresses are flooded in through the originating por

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 12
When configuring FCoE VLANs and Virtual Fiber Channel (vFC) Interfaces, what guidelines must be followed?

• A. Each vFC interface must be bound to an FCoE-enabled Ethernet or EtherChannel interface or to the MAC address of a remotely connected adapter
• B. Each FC interface must be bound to an FCoE-enabled Ethernet or EtherChannel interface or to the MAC address of a remotely connected adapter
• C. Each vFC interface must be bound to an FC enabled Ethernet or EtherChannel interface or to the MAC address of a remotely connected adapter
• D. Each vFC interface must be bound to an FCoE-enabled vFC or EtherChannel interface or to the MAC address of a remotely connected adapter

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13
What are two ways to configure the switch ID for Cisco FabricPath? (Choose two.)

• A. manually by using the vPC domain configuration
• B. manually by using global configuration mode
• C. dynamically by using the POAP protocol
• D. dynamically by using the DRAP protocol
• E. dynamically by using the SNMPv2 protocol

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 14
Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?

• A. VSS
• B. domain parameters
• C. virtual switches
• D. AAA

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Fibre Channel domain (fcdomain) feature performs principal switch selection, domain ID distribution, FC ID allocation, and fabric reconfiguration functions as described in the FC-SW-2 standards. The domains are configured on a per VSAN basis. If you do not configure a domain ID, the local switch uses a random ID.
This section describes each fcdomain phase:
• Principal switch selection — This phase guarantees the selection of a unique principal switch across the fabric.
• Domain ID distribution — This phase guarantees each switch in the fabric obtains a unique domain ID.
• FC ID allocation — This phase guarantees a unique FC ID assignment to each device attached to the corresponding switch in the fabric.
• Fabric reconfiguration — This phase guarantees a resynchronization of all switches in the fabric to ensure they simultaneously restart a new principal switch selection phase.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides
/sysmgnt/DCNM-SAN/sysmgmt_dcnm/sysmgmt_overview.html#wp1051962

NEW QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the result of the configuration is true?

• A. The virtual IPv6 address is derived from the physical IPv6 address of the interface
• B. Hello packets are sent by using an address of 224.0.0.102.
• C. Hello packets are sent by using an address of FF02 : 66
• D. The virtual MAC address is derived from the physical IPv6 address of the interfac

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which statement about RADIUS configuration distribution using Cisco Fabric Services on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch is true?

• A. Cisco Fabric Services does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys.
• B. Enabling Cisco Fabric Services causes the existing RADIUS configuration on your Cisco NX-OS device to be immediately distributed.
• C. When the RADIUS configuration is being simultaneously changed on more than one device in a Cisco Fabric Services region, the most recent changes will take precedence.
• D. Only the Cisco NX-OS device with the lowest IP address in the Cisco Fabric Services region can lock the RADIUS configuration.

Answer: A

Explanation:
CFS does not distribute the RADIUS server group configuration or server and global keys. The keys are unique to the Cisco NX-OS device and are not shared with other Cisco NX-OS devices. Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nxos/ security/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NXOS_
Security_Configuration_Guide Release_6-x/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_NXOS_ Security_Configuration_Guide Release_6-x_chapter_0101.html

NEW QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command should you run on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series switch to produce the output?

• A. show fabric-binding database active
• B. show port-security database active
• C. show fabric-binding database
• D. show port-security database

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 18
Which statement about implementing fabric binding is true?

• A. Cisco Fabric Services must be enabled on a switch to distribute configuration information
• B. Activation must be performed globally
• C. Activation must be performed on a per-VSAN basis
• D. Activation must be performed globally on a switch

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19
Which two statements are true when performing a SPAN capture of traffic reaching the Supervisor CPU in order to troubleshoot control plane protocols in the tenant VDC? (Choose two.)

• A. The destination interface will also receive control plane traffic from other VDCs.
• B. The SPAN configuration must be added to the default or administrative VDC.
• C. SPAN only supports monitoring of ingress traffic to the supervisor.
• D. Captured traffic from the supervisor can be shown directly on the terminal.
• E. Only monitoring of egress traffic from the supervisor is possibl

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.

What does the diameter command specify?

• A. the maximum number of hops between any two bridges on a network.
• B. the number of VLANs that were removed from the MSTI.
• C. the VLAN that becomes the root of the MSTI
• D. the maximum number of hops between any two MST instances on a network

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21
A Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender is connected to two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches via a vPC link. After both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches lose power, only one switch is able to power back up. At this time, the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender is not active and the vPC ports are unavailable to the network.
Which action will get the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender active when only one Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch is up and active?

• A. Move the line from the failed Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch to the switch that is powered on, so the port channel forms automatically on the switch that is powered on.
• B. Shut down the peer link on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch that is powered on.
• C. Configure reload restore or auto-recovery reload-delay on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch that is powered on.
• D. Power off and on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender so that it can detect only one Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switch at power up.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The vPC consistency check message is sent by the vPC peer link. The vPC consistency check cannot be
performed when the peer link is lost. When the vPC peer link is lost, the operational secondary switch suspends all of its vPC member ports while the vPC member ports remain on the operational primary switch. If the vPC member ports on the primary switch flaps afterwards (for example, when the switch or server that connects to the vPC primary switch is reloaded), the ports remain down due to the vPC consistency check and you cannot add or bring up more vPCs.
Beginning with Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N2(1), the auto-recovery feature brings up the vPC links when one peer is down. This feature performs two operations:
• If both switches reload, and only one switch boots up, auto-recovery allows that switch to assume the role of the primary switch. The vPC links come up after a configurable period of time if
the vPC peer-link and the peer-keepalive fail to become operational within that time. If the peer-link comes up but the peer-keepalive does not come up, both peer switches keep the vPC links down. This feature is similar to the reload restore feature in Cisco NX-OS Release 5.0(2)N1(1) and earlier releases. The reload delay period can range from 240 to 3600 seconds.
• When you disable vPCs on a secondary vPC switch because of a peer-link failure and then the primary vPC switch fails, the secondary switch reenables the vPCs. In this scenario, the vPC waits for three consecutive keepalive failures before recovering the vPC links.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/operations/n5k_vpc_op s.html

NEW QUESTION 22
You plan to configure authentication for OSPF. In which mode should you configure OSPF authentication to use a specific key chain?

• A. router ospf
• B. global configuration
• C. vPC
• D. interface

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23
In OTV, how are the VLANs split when a site has two edge devices?

• A. They are configured manually by user.
• B. They are split in half among each edge device.
• C. They are split as odd and even VLAN IDs on each edge device.
• D. It is not possible to have two edge devices in same sit

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24
In policy-based routing, which action is taken for packets that do not match any of the route-map statements?

• A. forwarded after the egress queue empties on the outbound interface
• B. forwarded using the last statement in the route map
• C. forwarded using the closest matching route-map statement
• D. forwarded using destination-based routing

Answer: D

Explanation:
Each entry in a route map contains a combination of match and set statements. The match statements define the criteria for whether appropriate packets meet the particular policy (that is, the conditions to be met). The set clauses explain how the packets should be routed once they have met the match criteria.
You can mark the route-map statements as permit or deny. You can interpret the statements as follows:
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets meet the match criteria, the set clause is applied. One of these actions involves choosing the next hop.
• If a statement is marked as deny, the packets that meet the match criteria are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
• If the statement is marked as permit and the packets do not match any route-map statements, the packets are sent back through the normal forwarding channels, and destination-based routing is performed.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/unicast/configuration/guide/l3_cli_nxos/l3pbr.pdf

NEW QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the bind interface eth 1/16 command on the vfc 130 interface?

• A. It transitions the port to the forwarding state of the spanning tree automatically.
• B. It attaches the FCoE interface to the VSAN interface.
• C. It attaches the virtual Fibre Channel interface to the physical interface.
• D. It attaches the physical Fibre Channel interface to the virtual Fibre Channel interfac

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26
Which information does the show fcns database command display?

• A. FCID
• B. port name
• C. nWWN
• D. interface

Answer: A

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/m/en_us/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/n5k/commands/show-fcnsdatabase. html

NEW QUESTION 27
You have a Fibre Channel switch with one of its ports connected to a host. The host remains in the initializing state. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

• A. The FLOGI packet was dropped somewhere on the data path
• B. The ELP process failed after the FLOGI occurred
• C. The host is not powered on
• D. The vFC interface on the host is configured to use an incorrect mode

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 28
Within the vPC configuration of the 7K's the command peer-gateway is configured as confirmed with the command show vpc. what is the result of enabling this command?

• A. Enable 7k-3 to act as the active gateway for packet received on VLAN 101 that are addressed to the MAC address of 7k-4
• B. Enables n7k-4 to use of the vpc peer link for forwarding packets received on VLAN 100 that are addressed to the MACRESS OF 7K-4
• C. Generates IP redirect messages for packet switched though the peer-gateway router
• D. Cause the HSRP active router to update the ARP table on the standby router for faster convergence after the vPC peer link has flapped
• E. Allow the vpc peers to coordinate the IACP ID with must be the same on all links on all the port channel.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The vPC peer gateway command allows either Nexus 7000 to intercept any packet (including HSRP packets) which is destined to the other peer’s MAC address to prevent the packet from traversing the vPC peer link.

NEW QUESTION 29
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