NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

• A. Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools
• B. Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use
• C. Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools
• D. Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2


The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire. What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

• A. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire
• B. TC1 - £18 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
• C. TC1 - £23 total charges including buggy hire; TC2 - £16 total charge but no buggy allowed
• D. TC1 - £17 total charges but no buggy allowed; TC2 - £21 total charge including buggy hire

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

• A. Testing for performance problems
• B. Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company
• C. Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
• D. Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4

You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

• A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
• B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
• C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
• D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? 2 credits

• A. Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage.
• B. Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.
• C. Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery.
• D. Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6

System testing is:

• A. Used to search for defects in software modules that are separately testable.
• B. The responsibility of the users of a system.
• C. Concerned with the behavior of a whole system/product as defined by the scope of a developmentproject.
• D. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of the software system.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

• A. An approach to regression testing
• B. A list of boundary values for “advance amount”
• C. A description of dependencies between test cases
• D. A logical collection of test cases

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:
• Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am
• Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service
• The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day’s peak service Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.
When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

• A. A.-0600, 1000, 1200B.1001, 1300, 2259C.0100, 0800, 2200D.2400, 1000, 2301

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?

• A. Unit testing, system testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.
• B. System testing, unit testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.
• C. Acceptance testing, system testing, maintenance testing, unit testing.
• D. Unit testing, maintenance testing, system testing, acceptance testing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?

• A. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied.
• B. All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature.
• C. Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed.
• D. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 11

What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

• A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution
• B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete
• C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
• D. to determine when to stop testing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

Consider the following pseudo code
* 1. Begin
* 2. Read Gender
* 3. Print “Dear”
* 4. If Gender = ‘female’
* 5. Print (“Ms”)
* 6. Else
* 7. Print ( “Mr”)
* 8. Endif
* 9. End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

• A. Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.
• B. Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.
• C. Adequacy of the test approaches taken.
• D. Discussions on disaster recovery.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

• A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
• B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and testware.
• C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
• D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15

Acceptance test cases are based on what?

• A. Requirements
• B. Design
• C. Code
• D. Decision table

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

Before an invoice can be created, an account is required. Before an account can be set up, an account user is required (in order to set up the account). The software is delivered with a master user only, who can only create other types of users. The following test cases have been written to test the high-level structure of the software
* a. Create an invoice
* b. Amend an invoice
* c. Process an invoice (send to customer)
* d. Delete an invoice
* e. Create an account
* f. Create an account user
* g. Amend an account user
* h. Delete an account user
* i. Amend an account
* j. Delete an account
Which of the following test procedures would enable all tests to be run? [K3]

• A. f, g, a, c, b, d, e, i, j, h
• B. e, i, a, c, b, d, f, g, h, j
• C. e, i, f, g, a, c, b, d, h, j
• D. f, g, e, i, a, b, c, d, j, h

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17

Refer to the exhibit
The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.
Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

• A. b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h
• B. a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h
• C. c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f
• D. d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? 1 credit

• A. Brainstorming
• B. Inspections
• C. Expert interviews
• D. Independent assessments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:
* a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document
* b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements
* c. A detailed schedule of testing activities
* d. The development deliverables to be tested
* e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when
* f. Level of requirements coverage achieved
Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit

• A. a
• B. b
• C. c
• D. d
• E. e
• F. f

Answer: ABD

NEW QUESTION 20

What is important to do when working with software development models?

• A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
• B. To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model.
• C. To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models.
• D. To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 21

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

• A. The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project
• B. The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects
• C. The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics
• D. The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit

• A. Quality of the specification
• B. Availability of end-users
• C. The costs of hardware and tools
• D. Unknown input quality due to third party development

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:
Fail: 0–39 inclusive
Pass: 40–59 inclusive
Merit: 60–79 inclusive
Distinction: 80–100 inclusive
In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

• A. 25, 40, 60, 75
• B. 0, 45, 79, 87
• C. 35, 40, 59, 69
• D. 25, 39, 60, 81

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

• A. Use case testing
• B. State transition testing
• C. Decision testing
• D. Equivalence partitioning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 25

A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

• A. an error
• B. a fault
• C. a failure
• D. a defect

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 26

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

• A. They can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.
• B. They can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.
• C. They can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.
• D. They can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Exploratory testing is used when it is unclear what the system is supposed to do. Therefore test execution tools are of little use because expected results cannot be predicted.
However, the record feature of a test execution tool can be used to log the actions performed so that defects can be recreated (option (A)) and rectified more easily.

NEW QUESTION 27

Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?
(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.
(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.
(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.
(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

• A. (i) and (ii)
• B. (ii) and (iii)
• C. (ii) and (iv)
• D. (i) and (iii)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 28

Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

• A. Project Manager
• B. Test Engineer
• C. Test Manager
• D. None of the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 29

Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

• A. (i) and (ii)
• B. (i) and (iv)
• C. (ii) and (iii)
• D. (iii) and (iv)

Answer: A

Explanation:
It is unlikely that developers will have a better understanding of the requirements than testers, partly because testers work closely with the user community (and may be drawn from it) and partly because developers seldom work with the complete set of requirements in a medium to large development.
Testers may raise incidents related to the difference between user expectations and the specification, but these are not unnecessary. Such issues are more likely to arise at the later stages of testing.
Early testing (unit testing) is usually done most effectively by developers with a good understanding of the code and the development environment; they can be more efficient and more effective at this level. Later independent stages of testing offset any disadvantage from the lack of independence at unit testing level.

NEW QUESTION 30

What is the value of static code analysis?

• A. Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing
• B. Early defect detection
• C. Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations
• D. Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 31
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